Free paper practiceArchived exam paper2026

RRB JE CBT 2 Civil Engineering Practice Paper 01 (Exam Pattern, Solved Set)

RRB JE (Junior Engineer) • 2026 • 150 Questions • Free practice with solutions

Subjects included:General Awareness (15)General Science (25)Computer Knowledge (10)Civil Engineering (SSC JE) (100)
CBT TEST SIMULATION
Want to test yourself under real exam timing?

Attempt this paper with interactive countdown, marking scheme, palette overview, and instant scorecard.

⏱️ Start Timed Mock →
Showing 150 Questions with Step-by-Step Solutions
Q1General Awareness
Medium
The Indian Railways Institute of Civil Engineering (IRICEN) is located in:
A. Pune
B. Nashik
C. Jamalpur
D. Vadodara
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
IRIEEN is in Nashik and IRIMEE in Jamalpur.
Q2General Awareness
Medium
The Indian Railways Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering (IRIMEE) is located in:
A. Pune
B. Jamalpur
C. Secunderabad
D. Lucknow
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Jamalpur is in Bihar.
Q3General Awareness
Medium
The Indian Railways Institute of Electrical Engineering (IRIEEN) is located in:
A. Jamalpur
B. Pune
C. Nashik
D. Kolkata
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
It trains electrical engineering officers.
Q4General Awareness
Medium
The Indian Railways Institute of Signal Engineering and Telecommunications (IRISET) is located in:
A. Pune
B. Lucknow
C. Nashik
D. Secunderabad
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
It trains signal and telecom staff.
Q5General Awareness
Medium
South India's first railway line, opened in 1856, ran from Royapuram (Madras) to:
A. Wallajah Road (Arcot)
B. Bengaluru
C. Tiruchirappalli
D. Pondicherry
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
It opened on 1 July 1856.
Q6General Awareness
Easy
The track width of Indian broad gauge is:
A. 1,435 mm
B. 1,676 mm
C. 1,000 mm
D. 762 mm
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
1,435 mm is standard gauge, used on metro lines.
Q7General Awareness
Easy
The track width of metre gauge is:
A. 762 mm
B. 1,676 mm
C. 1,000 mm
D. 610 mm
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Most metre-gauge lines have been converted to broad gauge.
Q8General Awareness
Medium
Indian Railways electrifies its main lines at:
A. 11 kV AC, 60 Hz
B. 1,500 V DC
C. 750 V DC
D. 25 kV AC, 50 Hz
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Single-phase 25 kV AC overhead traction.
Q9General Awareness
Medium
The headquarters of Konkan Railway Corporation is at:
A. CBD Belapur, Navi Mumbai
B. Goa
C. Mangaluru
D. Ratnagiri
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The line runs from Roha to Thokur.
Q10General Awareness
Easy
The first line of the Delhi Metro opened in:
A. 1998
B. 2002
C. 2005
D. 2010
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Shahdara to Tis Hazari, December 2002.
Q11General Awareness
Easy
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has its headquarters in:
A. Kolkata
B. Mumbai
C. New Delhi
D. Bengaluru
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
BIS sets Indian Standards (IS codes).
Q12General Awareness
Easy
ISO 9001 is a standard for:
A. Occupational safety
B. Environmental management
C. Information security
D. Quality management systems
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
ISO 14001 is for environmental management.
Q13General Awareness
Easy
The National Highways Authority of India works under the:
A. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
B. Ministry of Railways
C. Ministry of Home Affairs
D. NITI Aayog
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
It develops and maintains national highways.
Q14General Awareness
Easy
The Smart Cities Mission was launched in:
A. 2012
B. 2015
C. 2018
D. 2020
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
On 25 June 2015.
Q15General Awareness
Medium
The AMRUT scheme mainly deals with urban:
A. Airports
B. Metro rail
C. Water supply and sewerage
D. Housing loans
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation.
Q16General Science
Medium
The dimensional formula of force is:
A. [M L⁻¹ T⁻²]
B. [M L² T⁻²]
C. [M L T⁻¹]
D. [M L T⁻²]
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Force = mass x acceleration.
Q17General Science
Easy
The CGS unit of work is the:
A. Erg
B. Joule
C. Dyne
D. Watt
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
1 joule = 10^7 erg.
Q18General Science
Easy
One newton is equal to:
A. 10³ dyne
B. 10⁵ dyne
C. 10⁷ dyne
D. 10² dyne
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
1 N = 1 kg m/s^2 = 1,000 g x 100 cm/s^2.
Q19General Science
Easy
The SI unit of Young's modulus is the:
A. Joule
B. Newton
C. Pascal (N/m²)
D. Metre
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
It is stress divided by strain, and strain has no unit.
Q20General Science
Easy
Stress is defined as:
A. Work per unit volume
B. Change in length per unit length
C. Force times area
D. Force per unit area
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Strain is the change in length per unit length.
Q21General Science
Medium
Hooke's law holds only within the:
A. Elastic limit
B. Breaking point
C. Yield point and beyond
D. Plastic range
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Within it, stress is proportional to strain.
Q22General Science
Medium
The specific heat capacity of water is about:
A. 418.6 J/(kg K)
B. 4,186 J/(kg K)
C. 41.86 J/(kg K)
D. 4.186 J/(kg K)
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
About 4.2 kJ per kg per kelvin.
Q23General Science
Easy
The SI unit of surface tension is:
A. N m
B. N/m²
C. N/m
D. J/s
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Force per unit length.
Q24General Science
Medium
The SI unit of dynamic viscosity is:
A. J/kg
B. N/m
C. m²/s
D. Pa s
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Kinematic viscosity is measured in m^2/s.
Q25General Science
Medium
Bernoulli's principle is based on the conservation of:
A. Energy
B. Mass
C. Momentum
D. Charge
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Pressure, kinetic and potential energy per unit volume stay constant along a streamline.
Q26General Science
Medium
Which of these does NOT obey Ohm's law?
A. A copper wire
B. A semiconductor diode
C. A nichrome wire at constant temperature
D. A carbon resistor
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Its current-voltage graph is not a straight line.
Q27General Science
Easy
The resistance of a metallic conductor:
A. Does not depend on temperature
B. Decreases with temperature
C. Increases with temperature
D. Becomes zero at room temperature
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Metals have a positive temperature coefficient.
Q28General Science
Medium
The electric field inside a charged hollow conductor is:
A. Infinite
B. Maximum
C. Equal to that at the surface
D. Zero
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Charge resides on the outer surface.
Q29General Science
Easy
The SI unit of capacitance is the:
A. Farad
B. Henry
C. Ohm
D. Tesla
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
1 farad = 1 coulomb per volt.
Q30General Science
Medium
Lenz's law is a consequence of the conservation of:
A. Charge
B. Energy
C. Momentum
D. Mass
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The induced current opposes the change that produces it.
Q31Computer Knowledge
Easy
CPU stands for:
A. Central Processing Unit
B. Central Program Unit
C. Computer Processing Unit
D. Control Processing Utility
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
It carries out instructions.
Q32Computer Knowledge
Easy
Which memory loses its contents when power is switched off?
A. ROM
B. RAM
C. Hard disk
D. Pen drive
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
RAM is volatile.
Q33Computer Knowledge
Easy
ROM is:
A. An input device
B. Volatile memory
C. Non-volatile, read-only memory
D. A type of printer
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
It stores firmware such as the BIOS.
Q34Computer Knowledge
Easy
1 kilobyte (KB) is equal to:
A. 100 bytes
B. 1,000 bits
C. 1,024 bits
D. 1,024 bytes
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
2^10 bytes.
Q35Computer Knowledge
Easy
1 byte is equal to:
A. 8 bits
B. 4 bits
C. 16 bits
D. 10 bits
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
A bit is a single 0 or 1.
Q36Computer Knowledge
Easy
The binary form of decimal 10 is:
A. 1001
B. 1010
C. 1100
D. 0110
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
8 + 2 = 10.
Q37Computer Knowledge
Easy
The decimal value of binary 1101 is:
A. 14
B. 11
C. 13
D. 12
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
8 + 4 + 0 + 1 = 13.
Q38Computer Knowledge
Easy
Which of these is an input device?
A. Speaker
B. Monitor
C. Printer
D. Keyboard
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The others are output devices.
Q39Computer Knowledge
Easy
Which of these is an output device?
A. Printer
B. Mouse
C. Scanner
D. Keyboard
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
It gives information out of the computer.
Q40Computer Knowledge
Easy
Which of these is an operating system?
A. MS Word
B. Linux
C. Google Chrome
D. Oracle Database
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Windows, Linux and macOS are operating systems.
Q41General Science
Easy
Global warming is mainly caused by:
A. Nitrogen in the air
B. Oxygen in the air
C. Greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide
D. Ozone in the stratosphere
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
They trap heat radiated by the Earth.
Q42General Science
Medium
The Kyoto Protocol deals with:
A. Wetland conservation
B. Protecting the ozone layer
C. Trade in endangered species
D. Reducing greenhouse gas emissions
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Adopted in 1997.
Q43General Science
Medium
The Montreal Protocol deals with:
A. Ozone-depleting substances
B. Greenhouse gases
C. Plastic waste
D. Biodiversity
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
It phased out CFCs.
Q44General Science
Medium
The Paris Agreement aims to limit global warming to:
A. Exactly 4 °C
B. Well below 2 °C above pre-industrial levels
C. 0 °C
D. 5 °C by 2100
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
With efforts to limit it to 1.5 °C.
Q45General Science
Medium
BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of water indicates the amount of:
A. Heavy metals
B. Dissolved salts
C. Organic pollution that microbes break down
D. Radioactivity
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
It is the oxygen used by microbes to decompose organic matter.
Q46General Science
Easy
A high BOD value means the water is:
A. Colder
B. Cleaner
C. Softer
D. More polluted
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
More organic matter is present.
Q47General Science
Easy
PM2.5 refers to particulate matter with a diameter of:
A. 2.5 micrometres or less
B. 2.5 millimetres or less
C. 25 micrometres or more
D. 2.5 centimetres
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
These fine particles go deep into the lungs.
Q48General Science
Easy
Noise is measured in:
A. Hertz
B. Decibels
C. Lux
D. Pascals
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
A logarithmic scale.
Q49General Science
Medium
The CPCB daytime ambient noise limit for residential areas is:
A. 65 dB(A)
B. 75 dB(A)
C. 55 dB(A)
D. 45 dB(A)
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
The night-time limit is 45 dB(A).
Q50General Science
Medium
Which device removes fine particles from chimney gases using an electric charge?
A. Cyclone fan
B. Scrubber only
C. Catalytic converter
D. Electrostatic precipitator
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Charged particles stick to collecting plates.
Q51Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Which Bogue compound of Portland cement is mainly responsible for its early strength gain?
A. Dicalcium silicate (C2S)
B. Tricalcium silicate (C3S)
C. Tricalcium aluminate (C3A)
D. Tetracalcium aluminoferrite (C4AF)
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
C3S hydrates quickly and gives most of the strength in the first 7 to 28 days. C2S hydrates slowly and adds strength later.
Q52Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
As per the IS test method, the initial setting time of ordinary Portland cement should not be less than
A. 60 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 120 minutes
D. 30 minutes
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Initial setting time must be at least 30 minutes so the mix can be transported and placed. Final setting time must not exceed 600 minutes.
Q53Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
In the Vicat test for standard consistency of cement, the paste is of standard consistency when the plunger stops at
A. 5 to 7 mm above the bottom of the mould
B. 10 to 12 mm above the bottom of the mould
C. 20 to 22 mm above the bottom of the mould
D. 0 to 2 mm above the bottom of the mould
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Standard consistency is the water content (as a percentage of cement) at which the 10 mm plunger penetrates the paste and stops 5 to 7 mm from the bottom of the 40 mm deep mould.
Q54Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The nominal size of a modular brick, including the mortar thickness, is
A. 225 mm × 112 mm × 75 mm
B. 230 mm × 110 mm × 70 mm
C. 200 mm × 100 mm × 100 mm
D. 190 mm × 90 mm × 90 mm
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
The modular brick is 190 × 90 × 90 mm actual and 200 × 100 × 100 mm nominal, which includes 10 mm of mortar joint.
Q55Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
After 24 hours of immersion in water, the water absorption of a first class brick should not exceed about
A. 10 percent of its dry weight
B. 5 percent of its dry weight
C. 30 percent of its dry weight
D. 20 percent of its dry weight
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
First class bricks are limited to about 20 percent absorption. Second and third class bricks are allowed a little more.
Q56Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Quick lime is chemically
A. calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2)
B. calcium carbonate (CaCO3)
C. calcium sulphate (CaSO4)
D. calcium oxide (CaO)
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Quick lime is made by burning limestone. Slaking it with water gives calcium hydroxide.
Q57Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
Bulking of fine sand is maximum at a moisture content of about
A. 4 to 6 percent
B. 10 to 12 percent
C. 25 to 30 percent
D. 15 to 20 percent
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
A thin water film around the grains pushes them apart, so volume increases up to about 20 to 30 percent at roughly 4 to 6 percent moisture. Fully dry or fully saturated sand does not bulk.
Q58Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The main purpose of seasoning of timber is to
A. remove moisture so that it shrinks less and resists decay
B. add moisture so that it becomes more flexible
C. increase its weight for better stability
D. change its natural colour
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Seasoning dries the timber to a safe moisture level, which reduces warping, shrinkage and attack by fungi.
Q59Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Which of the following is an igneous rock?
A. Marble
B. Granite
C. Slate
D. Sandstone
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Granite forms from cooled magma. Sandstone is sedimentary, while marble and slate are metamorphic.
Q60Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
Which of the following is a drying oil used as the vehicle in paints?
A. Castor oil
B. Kerosene oil
C. Linseed oil
D. Coconut oil
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Linseed oil absorbs oxygen from air and forms a hard, tough film, so it is the common drying oil in paints.
Q61Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
Hydraulic lime contains clay impurities in the range of about
A. less than 5 percent
B. more than 60 percent
C. 35 to 50 percent
D. 5 to 30 percent
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Hydraulic lime is made from limestone containing 5 to 30 percent clay. It can set under water, unlike fat lime.
Q62Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The glass most commonly used for ordinary window panes is
A. lead glass
B. fused silica glass
C. soda-lime glass
D. borosilicate glass
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Soda-lime glass is cheap and easy to make, so it is used for windows and bottles.
Q63Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The white powdery deposit that appears on the surface of brick walls is called efflorescence. It is caused by
A. soluble salts in bricks or soil brought out by moisture
B. the paint on the wall peeling
C. use of too much cement in mortar
D. overburning of bricks
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Soluble sulphates of sodium, calcium and magnesium dissolve in moisture, travel to the surface and crystallise as water evaporates.
Q64Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
In a concrete of grade M25, the number 25 represents
A. the mean tensile strength in N/mm² at 7 days
B. the water-cement ratio multiplied by 100
C. the characteristic compressive strength in N/mm² of 150 mm cubes at 28 days
D. the cement content in kg per cubic metre
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
M stands for mix and the number is the characteristic strength (5 percent failure probability) of 150 mm cubes at 28 days.
Q65Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
As per IS 456:2000, the minimum grade of concrete for reinforced concrete under mild exposure is
A. M30
B. M15
C. M20
D. M25
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
IS 456 prescribes M20 as the minimum for RCC in mild exposure. M15 is allowed only for plain concrete.
Q66Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
As per IS 456:2000, the modulus of elasticity of concrete (in N/mm²) is taken as
A. 500√fck
B. 4700√fck
C. 5000√fck
D. 5700√fck
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
IS 456 gives Ec = 5000√fck. The expression 4700√fck belongs to the American code.
Q67Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The usual nominal cover for reinforcement in columns under mild exposure is
A. 15 mm
B. 40 mm
C. 60 mm
D. 25 mm
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
IS 456 recommends at least 40 mm (or the bar diameter, if larger) for columns. Slabs usually have 20 mm and beams 25 mm in mild exposure.
Q68Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
For Fe 415 steel, the limiting value of xu,max/d in the limit state method is
A. 0.48
B. 0.46
C. 0.35
D. 0.53
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The limiting depth of neutral axis ratio is 0.53 for Fe 250, 0.48 for Fe 415 and 0.46 for Fe 500.
Q69Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
In limit state design of flexure, the maximum compressive strain in concrete at the extreme fibre is taken as
A. 0.0035
B. 0.002
C. 0.0045
D. 0.003
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
IS 456 assumes 0.0035 in bending. The value 0.002 is the strain at the peak stress for axial compression.
Q70Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The partial safety factor for reinforcement steel in the limit state method as per IS 456:2000 is
A. 1.15
B. 1.0
C. 1.5
D. 1.25
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The partial safety factor is 1.5 for concrete and 1.15 for steel.
Q71Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The Vee-Bee consistometer test is most suitable for concrete of
A. high workability
B. flowing concrete
C. very low workability (stiff mixes)
D. self-compacting concrete
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Slump is insensitive for stiff mixes. The Vee-Bee time (in seconds) measures the effort to remould a slumped cone into a cylinder under vibration.
Q72Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
As per IS 456:2000, ordinary Portland cement concrete should be cured for at least
A. 28 days
B. 3 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
The minimum curing period is 7 days for OPC concrete and 10 days where mineral admixtures or blended cements are used.
Q73Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The maximum spacing of vertical stirrups in a beam should not exceed
A. 1.5d or 600 mm, whichever is less
B. d or 450 mm, whichever is less
C. 0.75d or 300 mm, whichever is less
D. 0.5d or 150 mm, whichever is less
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
IS 456 limits the spacing of vertical stirrups to 0.75d or 300 mm, whichever is smaller, so that every potential diagonal crack is crossed.
Q74Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
As per IS 800:2007, the minimum pitch of bolts should be
A. 1.5 times the nominal diameter of the bolt
B. 1.0 times the nominal diameter of the bolt
C. 4.0 times the nominal diameter of the bolt
D. 2.5 times the nominal diameter of the bolt
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
IS 800:2007 gives a minimum pitch of 2.5d to avoid bearing failure between adjacent holes and to allow space for tightening.
Q75Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A bolt that transfers load by friction between the connected plates is called
A. a high strength friction grip (HSFG) bolt
B. a black bolt
C. a turned and fitted bolt
D. an anchor bolt
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
HSFG bolts are tightened to a high pretension so that the clamped plates carry the load by friction rather than by bolt shear.
Q76Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The theoretical effective length of a column fixed at both ends is
A. 2 L
B. L
C. 0.7 L
D. 0.5 L
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The theoretical values are 0.5L for fixed-fixed, 0.7L for fixed-hinged, L for hinged-hinged and 2L for fixed-free. IS 800 recommends 0.65L for design.
Q77Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The slenderness ratio of a steel column is the ratio of
A. its actual length to its width
B. its effective length to its least radius of gyration
C. its radius of gyration to its length
D. its effective length to its depth
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Slenderness ratio λ = Le / r_min and it decides the buckling strength of a compression member.
Q78Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The yield stress of structural steel of grade E250 as per IS 2062 is
A. 250 MPa
B. 410 MPa
C. 300 MPa
D. 230 MPa
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The grade number E250 is the minimum yield strength in MPa. The ultimate tensile strength of this steel is 410 MPa.
Q79Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The relation between modulus of elasticity E, modulus of rigidity G and Poisson’s ratio ν is
A. E = G / [2(1 + ν)]
B. E = G(1 + 2ν)
C. E = 2G(1 − ν)
D. E = 2G(1 + ν)
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
For an isotropic material E = 2G(1 + ν) = 3K(1 − 2ν).
Q80Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The maximum bending moment in a simply supported beam of span L carrying a uniformly distributed load w per unit length is
A. wL²/4
B. wL²/2
C. wL²/8
D. wL²/12
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
The maximum moment occurs at midspan, where the shear force is zero, and equals wL²/8.
Q81Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The maximum deflection of a cantilever of length L and flexural rigidity EI carrying a point load W at its free end is
A. WL³/8EI
B. WL³/48EI
C. WL³/3EI
D. 5WL³/384EI
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Integrating the moment curvature relation for a cantilever gives a tip deflection of WL³/3EI.
Q82Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The moment of inertia of a rectangular section of width b and depth d about its centroidal axis parallel to the width is
A. b³d/12
B. bd³/3
C. bd³/12
D. bd²/6
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Ixx = bd³/12 about the centroidal axis. The value bd³/3 is about the base.
Q83Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
Euler’s crippling load for a column of length L, hinged at both ends, is
A. 4π²EI / L²
B. 2π²EI / L²
C. π²EI / L²
D. π²EI / 4L²
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
For a pin-ended column the effective length equals L, so the buckling load is π²EI/L².
Q84Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The section modulus of a solid circular section of diameter d is
A. πd²/4
B. πd³/32
C. πd³/64
D. πd⁴/32
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Z = I/y = (πd⁴/64)/(d/2) = πd³/32.
Q85Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A propped cantilever beam is statically indeterminate to the degree of
A. three
B. two
C. zero
D. one
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
It has four reaction components (three at the fixed end, one at the prop) against three equilibrium equations in a plane, so the degree is one.
Q86Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
For a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load over its full span, the bending moment diagram is a
A. parabola
B. straight horizontal line
C. cubic curve
D. inclined straight line
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Shear force varies linearly, so the bending moment, which is the integral of shear force, is a parabola.
Q87Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The maximum shear stress in a rectangular beam section is
A. 2.0 times the average shear stress
B. 1.33 times the average shear stress
C. 1.5 times the average shear stress
D. equal to the average shear stress
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
For a rectangle τmax = 3V/2bd = 1.5 τavg at the neutral axis. A circular section gives 4/3.
Q88Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The polar moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft of diameter d is
A. πd²/4
B. πd³/16
C. πd⁴/64
D. πd⁴/32
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
J = Ixx + Iyy = 2 × πd⁴/64 = πd⁴/32.
Q89Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
In the simple bending equation M/I = σ/y = E/R, the symbol R represents
A. the radius of the cross-section
B. the reaction at the support
C. the resultant of the loads
D. the radius of curvature of the neutral surface
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
R is the radius to which the neutral surface bends. The curvature 1/R equals M/EI.
Q90Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
Lami’s theorem is applicable when
A. a body is moving with uniform velocity under two forces
B. three concurrent coplanar forces are in equilibrium
C. any number of non-concurrent forces act on a body
D. two parallel forces are in equilibrium
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Lami’s theorem states that each of three concurrent coplanar forces in equilibrium is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two.
Q91Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The strain energy stored per unit volume in a bar stressed to σ within the elastic limit is
A. σ / 2E
B. σE / 2
C. σ² / 2E
D. σ² / E
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Energy per unit volume is ½ × stress × strain = ½ σ (σ/E) = σ²/2E (the modulus of resilience when σ is the elastic limit).
Q92Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The maximum central deflection of a simply supported beam of span L carrying a central point load W is
A. 5WL⁴/384EI
B. WL³/48EI
C. WL³/3EI
D. WL³/192EI
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The standard result for a simply supported beam with a central point load is δ = WL³/48EI. The value 5wL⁴/384EI is for a full span UDL.
Q93Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A 20 m metric chain has how many links?
A. 150
B. 50
C. 100
D. 200
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Each link of a metric chain is 0.2 m, so a 20 m chain has 100 links (a 30 m chain has 150).
Q94Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A line has a reduced bearing of S 40° W. Its whole circle bearing is
A. 320°
B. 220°
C. 140°
D. 40°
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
In the south-west quadrant, WCB = 180° + reduced bearing = 180° + 40° = 220°.
Q95Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
Contours of different elevations can meet or cross each other only in the case of
A. a valley
B. a uniform slope
C. a vertical or overhanging cliff
D. a ridge
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
On a vertical cliff several contours coincide, and on an overhanging cliff they appear to cross. Elsewhere, contours of different levels never meet.
Q96Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
In levelling, the backsight reading on a benchmark of RL 100.000 m is 1.500 m and the foresight reading on a point P is 2.300 m. The RL of P is
A. 99.800 m
B. 99.200 m
C. 100.800 m
D. 98.200 m
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
HI = 100.000 + 1.500 = 101.500 m. RL of P = HI − FS = 101.500 − 2.300 = 99.200 m.
Q97Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
Taking observations on both faces of a theodolite eliminates
A. errors due to wrong booking
B. errors due to imperfect adjustment, such as collimation error
C. errors due to refraction
D. errors due to temperature change
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Face left and face right readings are averaged, so errors from the line of collimation, horizontal axis and vertical circle index cancel out.
Q98Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The arithmetic check in levelling is that ΣBS − ΣFS equals
A. first RL − last RL
B. last RL − first RL
C. last RL + first RL
D. ΣRise + ΣFall
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Both the HI method and the rise and fall method must satisfy ΣBS − ΣFS = Σrise − Σfall = last RL − first RL.
Q99Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
In stadia tacheometry with a horizontal line of sight, the horizontal distance is D = Ks + C. The multiplying constant K is usually
A. 10
B. 100
C. 1
D. 1000
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
In an external focusing instrument K is normally 100 and the additive constant C is about 0.3 m. In an internal focusing instrument C is almost zero.
Q100Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
A room measures 4 m × 3 m inside, with walls 0.3 m thick. The length of the centre line of the wall is
A. 15.2 m
B. 14.6 m
C. 14.0 m
D. 16.4 m
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The internal perimeter is 14 m. The centre line adds one wall thickness at each of the 4 corners: 14 + 4 × 0.3 = 15.2 m.
Q101Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Plinth area of a building is the built-up covered area measured at
A. the lintel level
B. the foundation level
C. the floor level (plinth level)
D. the roof level
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Plinth area is the covered area measured at the floor level of the lowest storey, including wall thickness.
Q102Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
To allow for voids and shrinkage, the dry volume of materials required for one cubic metre of wet concrete is taken as about
A. 2.00 m³
B. 1.25 m³
C. 1.00 m³
D. 1.54 m³
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The dry volume is about 52 to 54 percent more than the wet volume, so 1.54 is used.
Q103Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Approximately how many modular bricks (nominal size 20 × 10 × 10 cm) are needed for one cubic metre of brickwork?
A. 600
B. 400
C. 450
D. 500
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
One brick with mortar occupies 0.2 × 0.1 × 0.1 = 0.002 m³, so 1 / 0.002 = 500 bricks.
Q104Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
In valuation, the Years’ Purchase (YP) is the reciprocal of
A. the annual rent
B. the rate of interest (as a decimal)
C. the rate of depreciation
D. the sinking fund factor
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
YP = 100 / i, where i is the rate of interest in percent. Capitalised value = net annual income × YP.
Q105Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The cross-sectional areas of an embankment at two sections 20 m apart are 20 m² and 30 m². The volume between them by the mean sectional area method is
A. 1000 m³
B. 600 m³
C. 450 m³
D. 500 m³
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Mean area = (20 + 30)/2 = 25 m². Volume = 25 × 20 = 500 m³.
Q106Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The porosity n and void ratio e of a soil are related by
A. n = e / (1 + e)
B. n = (1 + e) / e
C. n = 1 + e
D. n = e / (1 − e)
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Void ratio e = Vv/Vs and porosity n = Vv/V = Vv/(Vs + Vv) = e/(1 + e).
Q107Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The liquid limit of soil in the Casagrande apparatus is the water content at which the groove closes after
A. 100 blows
B. 50 blows
C. 10 blows
D. 25 blows
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
By definition the liquid limit corresponds to the closure of the standard groove over 12 mm in 25 blows.
Q108Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A soil has a liquid limit of 45 percent and a plastic limit of 25 percent. Its plasticity index is
A. 20 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 1.8 percent
D. 70 percent
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Plasticity index = LL − PL = 45 − 25 = 20 percent.
Q109Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Terzaghi’s principle of effective stress states that
A. σ′ = σ − u
B. σ′ = σ × u
C. σ′ = σ + u
D. σ′ = u − σ
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The effective (intergranular) stress equals the total stress minus the pore water pressure. Only effective stress controls strength and compression.
Q110Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
According to Darcy’s law, the velocity of flow of water through soil is proportional to
A. the square of the hydraulic gradient
B. the length of the flow path only
C. the square root of the hydraulic gradient
D. the hydraulic gradient
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Darcy’s law is v = k i, valid for laminar flow, where k is the coefficient of permeability.
Q111Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The mass of the rammer used in the IS light compaction (standard Proctor) test is
A. 2.6 kg
B. 4.9 kg
C. 1.0 kg
D. 6.0 kg
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The light compaction test uses a 2.6 kg rammer with a 310 mm drop in a 1000 cc mould. The heavy compaction test uses a 4.9 kg rammer with a 450 mm drop.
Q112Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
In Terzaghi’s bearing capacity equation for a strip footing, the term 0.5γBNγ accounts for
A. the surcharge due to depth of foundation
B. the cohesion of the soil
C. the water table effect only
D. the weight of the soil below the footing (width effect)
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
cNc is the cohesion term, γDfNq is the surcharge term and 0.5γBNγ is the contribution of soil weight within the failure wedge (size effect).
Q113Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The critical hydraulic gradient at which quicksand condition occurs in cohesionless soils is approximately
A. 0.1
B. 10
C. 5
D. 1
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
ic = (G − 1)/(1 + e). For G ≈ 2.65 and e ≈ 0.65 this is about 1.
Q114Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The gauge pressure at a depth of 10 m in still water is approximately (g = 9.81 m/s²)
A. 981 kPa
B. 10 kPa
C. 98.1 kPa
D. 9.81 kPa
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
p = ρgh = 1000 × 9.81 × 10 = 98 100 Pa = 98.1 kPa.
Q115Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Flow in a circular pipe is generally laminar when the Reynolds number is below about
A. 10000
B. 4000
C. 2000
D. 500
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Flow is laminar for Re < 2000, transitional between about 2000 and 4000, and turbulent beyond that.
Q116Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Bernoulli’s equation for steady, incompressible, non-viscous flow is a statement of the conservation of
A. energy
B. momentum
C. mass
D. angular momentum
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The sum of pressure head, velocity head and datum head stays constant along a streamline, which expresses energy conservation.
Q117Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Water flows at 2 m/s in a pipe of 20 cm diameter that reduces to 10 cm diameter. The velocity in the smaller section is
A. 4 m/s
B. 16 m/s
C. 8 m/s
D. 2 m/s
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
A1V1 = A2V2. Area is proportional to d², so V2 = 2 × (20/10)² = 8 m/s.
Q118Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The discharge over a right-angled triangular notch varies with the head H as
A. H^(3/2)
B. H²
C. H^(1/2)
D. H^(5/2)
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
For a V-notch Q = (8/15) Cd √(2g) tan(θ/2) H^(5/2). A rectangular notch varies as H^(3/2).
Q119Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A hydraulic jump occurs when the flow changes from
A. subcritical to supercritical
B. uniform to critical
C. supercritical to subcritical
D. laminar to turbulent
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
A jump forms when a fast, shallow (supercritical) stream meets a slower, deeper (subcritical) one, with energy loss and a rise in depth.
Q120Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
In Manning’s formula, the mean velocity of flow is proportional to the hydraulic radius R raised to the power
A. 2/3
B. 1/2
C. 3/2
D. 1/3
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Manning’s formula is V = (1/n) R^(2/3) S^(1/2).
Q121Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
For the most economical rectangular channel section, the depth of flow is
A. equal to the bottom width
B. twice the bottom width
C. one-third of the bottom width
D. half of the bottom width
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
For a rectangle the best hydraulic section has b = 2y, and then R = y/2.
Q122Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A venturimeter is used to measure
A. the viscosity of a liquid
B. the pressure in a tank
C. the rate of flow (discharge) in a pipe
D. the depth of flow in an open channel
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
It uses the pressure drop between the inlet and the throat of a converging-diverging pipe section to find the discharge.
Q123Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A tipping bucket rain gauge is
A. a device to measure evaporation
B. a recording type of rain gauge
C. a stream gauge
D. a non-recording rain gauge
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The bucket tips after collecting a fixed depth of rain and each tip is recorded, which gives the rainfall intensity with time.
Q124Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Duty of water is the area irrigated per unit of
A. depth of water applied
B. time of irrigation
C. volume of water in cubic metres
D. discharge (cumec) supplied
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Duty is expressed in hectares per cumec of discharge during the base period.
Q125Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The relation between delta Δ (metres), base period B (days) and duty D (hectares per cumec) is
A. Δ = 8.64 B / D
B. Δ = 8.64 D / B
C. Δ = 86.4 B / D
D. Δ = 0.864 B / D
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
One cumec for B days gives 86 400 B m³, which spread over D hectares (10 000 D m²) gives a depth of 8.64 B/D metres.
Q126Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Which of the following is a rabi crop?
A. Wheat
B. Maize
C. Rice
D. Cotton
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Rabi crops such as wheat, gram and mustard are sown in October–November and harvested in March–April.
Q127Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A gravity dam resists the forces acting on it mainly by
A. tension in its upstream face
B. its own weight
C. the strength of its abutments
D. arch action
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The dam is stable because its weight and the shape of its section provide enough resistance against sliding and overturning.
Q128Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
In Lacey’s regime theory, the silt factor f is given by (d = mean particle size in mm)
A. 17.6 d²
B. 1.76 √d
C. 0.176 √d
D. 1.76 d
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Lacey’s silt factor is f = 1.76 √d with d in mm.
Q129Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The main difference between a weir and a barrage is that a barrage
A. has no gates and a high crest
B. is built only on hard rock
C. has gates to regulate the flow with a low crest
D. is used only for flood storage
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
A barrage controls the water level mainly with gates on a low crest, while a weir holds the level with a high solid crest.
Q130Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A hydrograph is a graph showing
A. rainfall against runoff coefficient
B. water level against velocity
C. discharge against time
D. rainfall against evaporation
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
A hydrograph plots stream discharge as a function of time at a particular section.
Q131Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The standard BOD test is conducted at
A. 27 °C for 3 days
B. 20 °C for 5 days
C. 37 °C for 5 days
D. 20 °C for 10 days
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Standard BOD5 is the oxygen consumed by microorganisms in 5 days at 20 °C.
Q132Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Hardness of water caused by the bicarbonates of calcium and magnesium is called
A. temporary hardness
B. residual hardness
C. total alkalinity
D. permanent hardness
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Boiling converts the bicarbonates into insoluble carbonates, which precipitate, so this hardness is called temporary.
Q133Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
As per BIS drinking water standards, the acceptable pH range is
A. 4.0 to 7.0
B. 8.5 to 10.5
C. 6.5 to 8.5
D. 5.0 to 6.0
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
IS 10500 specifies a pH of 6.5 to 8.5 for drinking water.
Q134Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
According to Stokes’ law, the settling velocity of a spherical particle in water is proportional to
A. its diameter
B. the cube of its diameter
C. the square root of its diameter
D. the square of its diameter
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
v = g(ρs − ρ)d² / 18μ, so velocity varies with d².
Q135Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The activated sludge process is a
A. biological aerobic treatment process
B. chemical precipitation process
C. anaerobic digestion process
D. physical screening process
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Microorganisms in an aerated tank oxidise organic matter. Part of the settled sludge is returned to the tank to keep the biomass high.
Q136Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Which gas is mainly responsible for acid rain?
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Methane
C. Argon
D. Sulphur dioxide
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
SO2 and nitrogen oxides combine with water vapour in the air and form sulphuric and nitric acids.
Q137Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
In the arithmetic increase method of population forecasting, the population after n decades is
A. P (1 + r)ⁿ
B. P − n x̄
C. P + n x̄, where x̄ is the average increase per decade
D. P × n x̄
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
The method assumes a constant numerical increase per decade, so Pn = P0 + n x̄.
Q138Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The main gas produced during anaerobic digestion of sewage sludge is
A. oxygen
B. chlorine
C. nitrogen
D. methane
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Anaerobic digestion yields biogas of roughly 60 to 70 percent methane and 30 to 40 percent carbon dioxide.
Q139Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Camber is provided on a straight road mainly to
A. resist centrifugal force
B. drain rainwater off the surface
C. increase the sight distance
D. reduce the gradient
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Camber is the transverse slope of the carriageway from its crown, so water drains quickly to the side drains.
Q140Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
For a horizontal curve, with V in km/h and R in metres, the relation between superelevation e and side friction f is e + f =
A. V² / (254 R)
B. V² / (63 R)
C. V² / (81 R)
D. V² / (127 R)
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
In SI units e + f = v²/gR and with v = V/3.6 this becomes V²/127R.
Q141Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The stopping sight distance is the sum of
A. the lag distance and the braking distance
B. the headway and the lag distance
C. the reaction time and the braking time
D. the braking distance and the overtaking distance
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
SSD = vt + v²/2gf, where vt is the lag distance during reaction time and v²/2gf is the braking distance.
Q142Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
In the standard penetration test on bitumen, a needle loaded with 100 g penetrates the sample for 5 seconds at a temperature of
A. 60 °C
B. 25 °C
C. 20 °C
D. 37 °C
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Penetration is the depth in tenths of a millimetre reached by a standard needle under 100 g in 5 s at 25 °C. It measures the hardness of bitumen.
Q143Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The track gauge of Indian broad gauge railways is
A. 762 mm
B. 1676 mm
C. 1000 mm
D. 1435 mm
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Broad gauge is 1676 mm, metre gauge is 1000 mm and narrow gauge is 762 or 610 mm. 1435 mm is the standard gauge.
Q144Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The CBR (California Bearing Ratio) test is used to evaluate
A. the hardness of aggregate
B. the quality of bitumen
C. the compressive strength of concrete
D. the strength of subgrade soil for flexible pavement design
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
CBR compares the load for 2.5 mm or 5 mm penetration of a plunger in the soil with that in standard crushed stone.
Q145Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
Rigid pavements transmit wheel loads to the subgrade mainly by
A. shear in the bituminous layer
B. lateral confinement of aggregates
C. slab (beam) action
D. grain-to-grain contact
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
A concrete slab has high flexural rigidity and spreads the load over a large subgrade area, unlike flexible pavements that rely on layered load spreading.
Q146Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
PERT uses time estimates which are
A. five: one for each stage
B. two: normal and crash
C. three: optimistic, most likely and pessimistic
D. one fixed time
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
PERT is probabilistic. Each activity has optimistic (to), most likely (tm) and pessimistic (tp) times.
Q147Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
In PERT, an activity has optimistic, most likely and pessimistic times of 4, 6 and 14 days. Its expected time is
A. 7 days
B. 6 days
C. 10 days
D. 8 days
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
te = (to + 4tm + tp)/6 = (4 + 24 + 14)/6 = 42/6 = 7 days.
Q148Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The activities on the critical path have a total float of
A. one day
B. zero
C. the maximum value in the network
D. negative infinity
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Critical activities have no slack, so any delay in them delays the whole project.
Q149Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The bar chart in project planning was introduced by
A. Karl Pearson
B. Henry L. Gantt
C. Frederick Taylor
D. Henry Ford
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Gantt charts show activities as bars against a time scale. They do not show interdependencies as clearly as network methods.
Q150Civil Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
In a lump-sum contract, the contractor agrees to
A. work without any fixed price
B. be paid per unit of each item
C. be paid for the actual cost plus a fee
D. complete the work for a fixed total price
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The owner knows the total cost up front, and any change in scope is handled by a variation order.

Questions about this paper

What is the RRB JE (Junior Engineer) 2026 question paper on this page?

It is an archived RRB JE (Junior Engineer) 2026 paper with 150 questions, kept for practice. Where a source is credited on the page, the paper comes from that source.

Which subjects does RRB JE CBT 2 Civil Engineering Practice Paper 01 (Exam Pattern, Solved Set) cover?

The 150 questions are grouped by subject: Civil Engineering (SSC JE) (100), General Science (25), General Awareness (15) and Computer Knowledge (10).

Where can I find the answer key for RRB JE CBT 2 Civil Engineering Practice Paper 01 (Exam Pattern, Solved Set)?

Every question on this page has a "View answer" section showing the correct option, with an explanation where one is available. There is no separate download to wait for.

Can I save RRB JE CBT 2 Civil Engineering Practice Paper 01 (Exam Pattern, Solved Set) as a PDF?

There is no separate PDF file. The whole paper is on this page, so you can use your browser's Print option and choose "Save as PDF" to keep a copy for offline revision.

How should I use this paper to prepare for RRB JE (Junior Engineer)?

First attempt it as a timed mock using the "Start timed mock" button, then review each answer here. Note the subjects where you lost marks and revise those before the next paper.

A clear next step

Turn this paper into a focused revision session.

You do not need to finish every topic today. Notice what this paper asks you to revisit.

What to know

Paper labels identify the available record. Use the original paper and final official key to resolve discrepancies.

Sources and answer-key policy

How to use this page

Review the questions you missed, check the reasoning, and choose one related topic to practise.

Build a topic practice set