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SSC JE Electrical Paper-I Practice Paper (2026 Exam Pattern, Solved Set)

SSC Junior Engineer (JE) • 2026 • 200 Questions • Free practice with solutions

Subjects included:Reasoning Ability (50)General Awareness (50)Electrical Engineering (SSC JE) (100)
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Showing 200 Questions with Step-by-Step Solutions
Q1Reasoning Ability
Easy
Pen : Write :: Knife : ?
A. Steel
B. Kitchen
C. Sharp
D. Cut
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
A pen is used to write, and a knife is used to cut.
Q2Reasoning Ability
Easy
Doctor : Hospital :: Teacher : ?
A. Education
B. Book
C. School
D. Student
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
A doctor works in a hospital, and a teacher works in a school.
Q3Reasoning Ability
Easy
8 : 64 :: 9 : ?
A. 81
B. 72
C. 99
D. 18
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The second number is the square of the first: 8² = 64, so 9² = 81.
Q4Reasoning Ability
Medium
CAT : ECV :: DOG : ?
A. FPI
B. FQI
C. GQJ
D. EPH
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Each letter moves two places forward: C→E, A→C, T→V. So D→F, O→Q, G→I.
Q5Reasoning Ability
Easy
Bird : Nest :: Bee : ?
A. Honey
B. Flower
C. Sting
D. Hive
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
A bird lives in a nest and a bee lives in a hive.
Q6Reasoning Ability
Easy
5 : 125 :: 7 : ?
A. 294
B. 49
C. 245
D. 343
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The second number is the cube of the first: 5³ = 125, so 7³ = 343.
Q7Reasoning Ability
Easy
Find the odd one out: Apple, Banana, Potato, Mango
A. Banana
B. Potato
C. Apple
D. Mango
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Potato is a vegetable (a tuber), whereas the others are fruits.
Q8Reasoning Ability
Easy
Find the odd one out: 2, 3, 5, 9, 11
A. 11
B. 2
C. 5
D. 9
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
All the numbers except 9 are prime.
Q9Reasoning Ability
Medium
Find the odd letter pair: AC, EG, IK, MP
A. EG
B. MP
C. AC
D. IK
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
In AC, EG and IK the second letter is two places after the first. In MP the gap is three.
Q10Reasoning Ability
Easy
Find the odd one out: Mercury, Venus, Moon, Mars
A. Moon
B. Mercury
C. Mars
D. Venus
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The Moon is a satellite, while the others are planets.
Q11Reasoning Ability
Easy
Find the odd one out: Square, Rectangle, Triangle, Rhombus
A. Rhombus
B. Triangle
C. Rectangle
D. Square
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
A triangle has three sides, whereas the others have four.
Q12Reasoning Ability
Medium
Find the next number: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
A. 38
B. 42
C. 40
D. 44
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The terms are n(n + 1): 1×2, 2×3, 3×4, 4×5, 5×6, so the next is 6×7 = 42.
Q13Reasoning Ability
Easy
Find the next number: 3, 6, 12, 24, ?
A. 36
B. 48
C. 30
D. 42
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Each term is twice the previous one.
Q14Reasoning Ability
Easy
Find the next number: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
A. 30
B. 36
C. 32
D. 35
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
These are the squares of the natural numbers; the next is 6² = 36.
Q15Reasoning Ability
Easy
Find the next letter: Z, X, V, T, ?
A. Q
B. R
C. S
D. P
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Each letter is two places before the previous one.
Q16Reasoning Ability
Medium
Find the next number: 5, 11, 23, 47, ?
A. 94
B. 93
C. 95
D. 96
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Each term is double the previous one plus 1: 47 × 2 + 1 = 95.
Q17Reasoning Ability
Easy
Find the next letter: B, E, H, K, ?
A. N
B. L
C. O
D. M
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Each letter is three places after the previous one.
Q18Reasoning Ability
Easy
Find the next number: 100, 92, 84, 76, ?
A. 70
B. 68
C. 64
D. 66
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The numbers decrease by 8 each time.
Q19Reasoning Ability
Easy
Find the next number: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, ?
A. 17
B. 19
C. 16
D. 15
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
These are the consecutive prime numbers; the next prime after 13 is 17.
Q20Reasoning Ability
Easy
If MANGO is written as NBOHP, how is APPLE written?
A. BQQLF
B. BQQMF
C. BPQMF
D. ZOOKD
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Each letter is replaced by the next letter of the alphabet: A→B, P→Q, P→Q, L→M, E→F.
Q21Reasoning Ability
Easy
If A = 1, B = 2, ... Z = 26, the sum of the letter values of the word DOG is
A. 28
B. 27
C. 26
D. 24
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
D = 4, O = 15, G = 7, and 4 + 15 + 7 = 26.
Q22Reasoning Ability
Easy
If TABLE is written as 20 1 2 12 5, how is CHAIR written?
A. 3 8 1 9 18
B. 3 8 1 9 17
C. 3 7 1 9 18
D. 4 8 1 9 18
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Each letter is replaced by its position in the alphabet: C = 3, H = 8, A = 1, I = 9, R = 18.
Q23Reasoning Ability
Easy
If CLOCK is written as DMPDL, how is TIME written?
A. UJNF
B. UKNF
C. SHLD
D. UJND
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Each letter is shifted one place forward: T→U, I→J, M→N, E→F.
Q24Reasoning Ability
Hard
If FRIEND is written as HUMJTK, how is CANDLE written?
A. EDRIRM
B. EDIRRL
C. EDRIRL
D. DEIRRL
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
The shifts are +2, +3, +4, +5, +6, +7 for letters 1 to 6. So C→E, A→D, N→R, D→I, L→R, E→L.
Q25Reasoning Ability
Easy
If 2 is coded as 4, 3 as 9 and 4 as 16, then 6 is coded as
A. 18
B. 36
C. 24
D. 12
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Each number is coded as its square.
Q26Reasoning Ability
Medium
Pointing to a photograph, a man says, "She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son." How is the girl related to the man?
A. Aunt
B. Cousin
C. Mother
D. Sister
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The man’s grandfather’s only son is the man’s father, and the father’s daughter is the man’s sister.
Q27Reasoning Ability
Medium
A is the brother of B. B is the sister of C. C is the father of D. How is A related to D?
A. Father
B. Grandfather
C. Uncle
D. Cousin
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
A and C are siblings. A is male, and C’s child is D, so A is D’s uncle.
Q28Reasoning Ability
Medium
P is the mother of Q. Q is the sister of R. R is the son of S. How is S related to P?
A. Father
B. Husband
C. Son
D. Brother
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Q and R are siblings, so S is a parent of Q. P is Q’s mother, so S must be the father, who is P’s husband.
Q29Reasoning Ability
Easy
Rohan’s mother is the only daughter of Mohan. How is Mohan related to Rohan?
A. Paternal grandfather
B. Father
C. Uncle
D. Maternal grandfather
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Mohan is the father of Rohan’s mother, so he is Rohan’s maternal grandfather.
Q30Reasoning Ability
Easy
A man walks 5 km north, then 3 km east and then 5 km south. How far is he from his starting point?
A. 8 km
B. 5 km
C. 13 km
D. 3 km
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The north and south legs cancel, so he is 3 km east of the start.
Q31Reasoning Ability
Easy
Rahul faces north, turns 90° clockwise and then 180° anticlockwise. He now faces
A. West
B. East
C. South
D. North
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
90° clockwise from north is east. Turning 180° from east gives west.
Q32Reasoning Ability
Easy
A man walks 4 km east and then 3 km north. His shortest distance from the starting point is
A. 12 km
B. 1 km
C. 7 km
D. 5 km
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
By Pythagoras, √(4² + 3²) = 5 km.
Q33Reasoning Ability
Easy
Ram goes 6 m south, then turns west and goes 8 m, then turns north and goes 6 m. His position with respect to the starting point is
A. 8 m east
B. 8 m west
C. 14 m west
D. 6 m north
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The south and north movements cancel, leaving 8 m to the west.
Q34Reasoning Ability
Easy
In a class of 40 students, Raj ranks 12th from the top. His rank from the bottom is
A. 27th
B. 29th
C. 30th
D. 28th
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Rank from the bottom = 40 − 12 + 1 = 29.
Q35Reasoning Ability
Easy
In a row, A is 7th from the left and 12th from the right. The total number of persons in the row is
A. 17
B. 19
C. 18
D. 20
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Total = 7 + 12 − 1 = 18.
Q36Reasoning Ability
Easy
A is taller than B, B is taller than C, D is taller than A, and E is shorter than C. Who is the tallest?
A. A
B. D
C. E
D. B
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The order from tallest to shortest is D > A > B > C > E.
Q37Reasoning Ability
Medium
Statements: All flowers are trees. No tree is a stone. Conclusions: I. No flower is a stone. II. Some stones are flowers.
A. Neither I nor II follows
B. Both I and II follow
C. Only conclusion I follows
D. Only conclusion II follows
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Flowers lie inside trees, and trees have no overlap with stones, so no flower is a stone. Conclusion II contradicts this.
Q38Reasoning Ability
Medium
Statements: Some pens are books. All books are tables. Conclusions: I. Some pens are tables. II. Some tables are pens.
A. Only conclusion II follows
B. Both I and II follow
C. Only conclusion I follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The pens that are books are also tables, so some pens are tables, and the converse follows.
Q39Reasoning Ability
Medium
Statements: Some tables are chairs. Some chairs are beds. Conclusions: I. Some tables are beds. II. Some beds are tables.
A. Only conclusion II follows
B. Only conclusion I follows
C. Both I and II follow
D. Neither I nor II follows
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Two “some” statements give no definite link between tables and beds, because the chairs may be different sets.
Q40Reasoning Ability
Medium
Statements: All pencils are pens. Some pens are erasers. Conclusions: I. Some pencils are erasers. II. Some erasers are pens.
A. Both I and II follow
B. Neither I nor II follows
C. Only conclusion II follows
D. Only conclusion I follows
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
The converse of “some pens are erasers” always holds, so II follows. The erasers need not overlap with pencils, so I does not follow.
Q41Reasoning Ability
Medium
If 5 March 2024 was a Tuesday, what day of the week was 25 March 2024?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Sunday
D. Wednesday
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
25 − 5 = 20 days later. 20 = 2 × 7 + 6, so the day moves 6 days ahead of Tuesday, to Monday.
Q42Reasoning Ability
Medium
The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 3:30 is
A. 60°
B. 90°
C. 75°
D. 105°
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
At 3:30 the hour hand is at 3.5 × 30 = 105° and the minute hand is at 180°. The angle is 75°.
Q43Reasoning Ability
Easy
Which of the following is a leap year?
A. 1900
B. 2100
C. 2024
D. 2022
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
A year divisible by 4 is a leap year, except century years, which must be divisible by 400. So 2024 is a leap year, whereas 2100 and 1900 are not.
Q44Reasoning Ability
Easy
If “+” means “−” and “−” means “+”, then 15 + 5 − 3 = ?
A. 23
B. 7
C. 17
D. 13
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
After substituting the signs, the expression is 15 − 5 + 3 = 13.
Q45Reasoning Ability
Easy
Find the missing number: 2 → 6, 3 → 12, 4 → 20, 5 → ?
A. 28
B. 25
C. 36
D. 30
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The rule is n × (n + 1): 2×3, 3×4, 4×5, so 5×6 = 30.
Q46Reasoning Ability
Medium
If 3 ⊕ 4 = 25 and 5 ⊕ 12 = 169, then 8 ⊕ 15 = ?
A. 233
B. 161
C. 23
D. 289
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The rule is a² + b²: 3² + 4² = 25 and 5² + 12² = 169. So 8² + 15² = 64 + 225 = 289.
Q47Reasoning Ability
Easy
Arrange in a meaningful order: 1. Seed 2. Plant 3. Fruit 4. Flower 5. Tree
A. 2 1 5 4 3
B. 1 5 2 4 3
C. 1 2 5 4 3
D. 1 2 4 5 3
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
The natural sequence is seed → plant → tree → flower → fruit.
Q48Reasoning Ability
Medium
Statement: If it rains, the match will be cancelled. The match was not cancelled. Which conclusion is definitely true?
A. It rained
B. It may have rained
C. The match was played in the rain
D. It did not rain
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
If the match was not cancelled, the condition “it rains” cannot have been true (contrapositive).
Q49Reasoning Ability
Easy
Statement: Only students with ID cards are allowed in the library. Ravi is allowed in the library. Which conclusion is definitely true?
A. Ravi has an ID card
B. Ravi has no ID card
C. All students are allowed in the library
D. Ravi is not a student
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Since permission requires an ID card, anyone who is allowed in must have one.
Q50Reasoning Ability
Medium
Statement: All the mangoes in the basket are ripe. Some fruits in the basket are not ripe. Which must be true?
A. Some mangoes in the basket are not ripe
B. All fruits in the basket are mangoes
C. No fruit in the basket is ripe
D. Some fruits in the basket are not mangoes
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The fruits that are not ripe cannot be mangoes, since all mangoes there are ripe.
Q51General Awareness
Easy
Who won the First Battle of Panipat in 1526?
A. Humayun
B. Sher Shah Suri
C. Akbar
D. Babur
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi, the last Sultan of Delhi, and founded the Mughal Empire.
Q52General Awareness
Medium
Dholavira, a major site of the Indus Valley Civilisation, is located in
A. Gujarat
B. Punjab
C. Rajasthan
D. Haryana
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Dholavira is in the Kutch district of Gujarat and is known for its water conservation system.
Q53General Awareness
Easy
After the Kalinga war, Emperor Ashoka adopted
A. Hinduism
B. Buddhism
C. Jainism
D. Sikhism
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The destruction of the war moved him to follow Buddhism and the policy of dhamma.
Q54General Awareness
Easy
The Quit India Movement was launched in
A. 1920
B. 1930
C. 1942
D. 1919
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
It was started by Mahatma Gandhi at the Bombay session of the Congress in August 1942, with the call “Do or Die”.
Q55General Awareness
Easy
The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in
A. Lahore
B. Amritsar
C. Ludhiana
D. Delhi
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
On 13 April 1919 troops under General Dyer fired on a gathering at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar.
Q56General Awareness
Medium
Who was the first Indian Governor-General of independent India?
A. C. Rajagopalachari
B. Rajendra Prasad
C. Lord Mountbatten
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Mountbatten was the last Viceroy and the first Governor-General. C. Rajagopalachari succeeded him in 1948.
Q57General Awareness
Medium
The practice of sati was abolished in 1829 by
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord William Bentinck
C. Lord Dalhousie
D. Lord Cornwallis
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The regulation was passed with the support of Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
Q58General Awareness
Medium
The Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by
A. Lord Dalhousie
B. Lord Canning
C. Lord Ripon
D. Lord Wellesley
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Under this policy, a princely state without a natural male heir could be annexed by the British.
Q59General Awareness
Easy
The longest river within India is
A. Ganga
B. Brahmaputra
C. Godavari
D. Yamuna
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The Ganga is about 2,525 km long. The Brahmaputra is longer overall, but it spends part of its course in China and Bangladesh.
Q60General Awareness
Medium
The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 6
D. 4
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
It passes through Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.
Q61General Awareness
Easy
The largest Indian state by area is
A. Maharashtra
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Rajasthan
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Rajasthan covers about 3.42 lakh sq km.
Q62General Awareness
Easy
Chilika Lake, the largest coastal lagoon in India, is in
A. Tamil Nadu
B. West Bengal
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Odisha
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Chilika lies on the east coast in Odisha and is a Ramsar site.
Q63General Awareness
Easy
The Deccan Plateau is bounded on the west by
A. the Aravalli Range
B. the Western Ghats
C. the Vindhya Range
D. the Eastern Ghats
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The Western Ghats form the western edge, and the Eastern Ghats the eastern edge of the plateau.
Q64General Awareness
Easy
Which soil is considered best for growing cotton?
A. Alluvial soil
B. Desert soil
C. Laterite soil
D. Black soil (regur)
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Black soil retains moisture well, so it supports cotton in the Deccan region.
Q65General Awareness
Easy
The Prime Meridian, the line of 0° longitude, passes through
A. Greenwich, London
B. Washington D.C.
C. New Delhi
D. Paris
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
It divides the Earth into the Eastern and Western Hemispheres.
Q66General Awareness
Easy
The Constitution of India came into force on
A. 15 August 1947
B. 26 November 1949
C. 2 October 1950
D. 26 January 1950
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
It was adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26 January 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day.
Q67General Awareness
Medium
The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the
A. 44th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 73rd Amendment
D. 1st Amendment
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The 42nd Amendment (1976), on the Swaran Singh Committee’s recommendation, added Part IVA (Article 51A).
Q68General Awareness
Easy
The right to life and personal liberty is guaranteed under
A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 32
D. Article 14
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Article 21 says that no person shall be deprived of life or personal liberty except by procedure established by law.
Q69General Awareness
Easy
The minimum age to be elected as President of India is
A. 40 years
B. 25 years
C. 35 years
D. 30 years
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
A candidate must be a citizen of India who has completed 35 years and is qualified for election to the Lok Sabha.
Q70General Awareness
Medium
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is
A. 552
B. 250
C. 245
D. 238
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
It has up to 238 elected members and 12 nominated members.
Q71General Awareness
Easy
A Money Bill can be introduced only in
A. a joint sitting of both Houses
B. either House
C. the Rajya Sabha
D. the Lok Sabha
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations on it, within 14 days.
Q72General Awareness
Easy
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act is related to
A. the Goods and Services Tax
B. Municipalities
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Panchayati Raj
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
It gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj institutions in 1992 (in force from 1993).
Q73General Awareness
Easy
The Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly was
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Rajendra Prasad
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. B. R. Ambedkar
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar chaired the committee, and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Assembly.
Q74General Awareness
Easy
The Reserve Bank of India was established in
A. 1949
B. 1969
C. 1935
D. 1947
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
The RBI began working on 1 April 1935 and was nationalised in 1949.
Q75General Awareness
Easy
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) came into effect in India on
A. 1 January 2018
B. 1 April 2017
C. 1 April 2016
D. 1 July 2017
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
It replaced many indirect taxes of the Centre and states with a single tax on goods and services.
Q76General Awareness
Easy
The repo rate is the rate at which
A. the RBI borrows from commercial banks
B. commercial banks lend to the public
C. the RBI lends short-term funds to commercial banks
D. banks lend to one another
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
The reverse repo is the rate at which the RBI borrows from banks.
Q77General Awareness
Easy
The Planning Commission was replaced by NITI Aayog in
A. 2015
B. 2010
C. 2017
D. 2012
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
NITI Aayog was set up on 1 January 2015 as a policy think tank of the Government of India.
Q78General Awareness
Easy
The headquarters of the Reserve Bank of India is located in
A. New Delhi
B. Kolkata
C. Chennai
D. Mumbai
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Though it was first set up in Kolkata, the RBI was moved to Mumbai in 1937.
Q79General Awareness
Medium
The fiscal deficit of a government is
A. its total expenditure minus its total receipts excluding borrowings
B. its revenue expenditure minus its revenue receipts
C. its total receipts minus its total expenditure
D. its capital expenditure alone
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
It shows how much the government must borrow in a year to meet its spending.
Q80General Awareness
Easy
The SI unit of force is
A. joule
B. watt
C. pascal
D. newton
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
One newton is the force that gives a mass of 1 kg an acceleration of 1 m/s².
Q81General Awareness
Easy
The speed of light in vacuum is approximately
A. 3 × 10⁵ m/s
B. 3 × 10⁶ m/s
C. 3 × 10⁸ m/s
D. 3 × 10¹⁰ m/s
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
It is 299 792 458 m/s, about 3 × 10⁸ m/s.
Q82General Awareness
Easy
A dentist uses which type of mirror to see an enlarged image of a tooth?
A. Convex
B. Plane
C. Concave
D. Cylindrical
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
A concave mirror forms an enlarged, erect image when the object is placed within its focal length.
Q83General Awareness
Easy
The SI unit of frequency is
A. hertz
B. decibel
C. candela
D. tesla
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
One hertz is one cycle per second.
Q84General Awareness
Easy
The chemical formula of common salt is
A. KCl
B. CaCl₂
C. NaCl
D. Na₂CO₃
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Common salt is sodium chloride.
Q85General Awareness
Easy
The pH of pure water at 25 °C is
A. 14
B. 5
C. 7
D. 0
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
A pH of 7 is neutral, below 7 is acidic and above 7 is basic.
Q86General Awareness
Easy
Which gas is mostly used in fire extinguishers?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Hydrogen
D. Nitrogen dioxide
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Carbon dioxide is heavier than air and does not support combustion, so it smothers the fire.
Q87General Awareness
Easy
The rusting of iron is an example of
A. neutralisation
B. oxidation
C. sublimation
D. reduction
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Iron reacts with oxygen and moisture to form hydrated iron(III) oxide.
Q88General Awareness
Easy
The powerhouse of the cell is the
A. ribosome
B. nucleus
C. Golgi apparatus
D. mitochondrion
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Mitochondria produce most of the ATP, the energy currency of the cell.
Q89General Awareness
Easy
A deficiency of vitamin C causes
A. rickets
B. scurvy
C. night blindness
D. beriberi
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Vitamin C is needed for making collagen. Rickets is due to vitamin D, beriberi to B1 and night blindness to vitamin A.
Q90General Awareness
Medium
Which blood group is called the universal donor?
A. AB positive
B. O negative
C. A positive
D. B negative
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
O negative red cells have no A, B or Rh antigens, so they can be given to almost any recipient.
Q91General Awareness
Easy
Photosynthesis takes place in the
A. chloroplasts
B. lysosomes
C. vacuoles
D. mitochondria
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The chlorophyll in the chloroplasts captures light energy to make glucose from carbon dioxide and water.
Q92General Awareness
Easy
The red pigment in human blood that carries oxygen contains
A. iron
B. calcium
C. copper
D. magnesium
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Haemoglobin has an iron-containing haem group. Chlorophyll contains magnesium.
Q93General Awareness
Easy
The first Indian to win a Nobel Prize was
A. Rabindranath Tagore
B. Amartya Sen
C. C. V. Raman
D. Mother Teresa
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Tagore won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for Gitanjali.
Q94General Awareness
Easy
The Bharat Ratna is
A. the highest gallantry award of India
B. the highest civilian award of India
C. an award for literature only
D. an award for sports only
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
It is given for exceptional service in any field of human endeavour.
Q95General Awareness
Easy
The national animal of India is the
A. elephant
B. tiger
C. lion
D. leopard
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The Bengal tiger was adopted as the national animal in 1973 under Project Tiger.
Q96General Awareness
Easy
Major Dhyan Chand is associated with the sport of
A. football
B. hockey
C. cricket
D. wrestling
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
He won Olympic gold medals with India in 1928, 1932 and 1936, and his birthday, 29 August, is National Sports Day.
Q97General Awareness
Easy
The book “The Discovery of India” was written by
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Sardar Patel
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
D. Rabindranath Tagore
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Nehru wrote it in Ahmednagar Fort jail in 1944.
Q98General Awareness
Easy
In computing, CPU stands for
A. Control Processing Utility
B. Computer Personal Unit
C. Central Program Unit
D. Central Processing Unit
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The CPU executes the instructions of a program and is often called the brain of the computer.
Q99General Awareness
Easy
The ozone layer protects life on Earth from
A. sound waves
B. infrared rays
C. cosmic dust
D. harmful ultraviolet rays of the Sun
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Ozone in the stratosphere absorbs most of the Sun’s UV-B and UV-C radiation.
Q100General Awareness
Easy
World Environment Day is celebrated every year on
A. 22 April
B. 21 March
C. 5 June
D. 16 September
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
It has been celebrated since 1974 on 5 June. Earth Day is on 22 April.
Q101Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A 12 V battery is connected across a 4 Ω resistor. The current drawn is
A. 3 A
B. 48 A
C. 8 A
D. 0.33 A
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
By Ohm’s law I = V/R = 12/4 = 3 A.
Q102Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A heater rated 230 V, 1150 W has a resistance of
A. 5 Ω
B. 26 450 Ω
C. 0.2 Ω
D. 46 Ω
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
R = V²/P = 230² / 1150 = 52 900 / 1150 = 46 Ω.
Q103Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
The length of a wire is doubled and its diameter is halved. Its resistance becomes
A. 4 times
B. 16 times
C. 2 times
D. 8 times
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
R = ρl/A. Length ×2 and area ÷4 (area ∝ d²) give R × 2 × 4 = 8 times.
Q104Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Two resistors of 10 Ω and 15 Ω are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance is
A. 150 Ω
B. 25 Ω
C. 6 Ω
D. 12.5 Ω
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
R = (10 × 15)/(10 + 15) = 150/25 = 6 Ω.
Q105Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Kirchhoff’s current law is based on the law of conservation of
A. charge
B. mass of the conductor
C. energy
D. momentum
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
At a node, the charge entering equals the charge leaving, so the algebraic sum of currents is zero.
Q106Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
One kilowatt-hour is equal to
A. 3600 J
B. 360 MJ
C. 36 kJ
D. 3.6 MJ
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
1 kWh = 1000 W × 3600 s = 3.6 × 10⁶ J.
Q107Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The energy stored in a 100 μF capacitor charged to 100 V is
A. 1 J
B. 5 J
C. 0.05 J
D. 0.5 J
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
E = ½CV² = 0.5 × 100 × 10⁻⁶ × 10⁴ = 0.5 J.
Q108Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The temperature coefficient of resistance of a semiconductor is
A. positive
B. infinite
C. zero
D. negative
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Heating frees more charge carriers in a semiconductor, so its resistance falls as temperature rises. In metals it rises.
Q109Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The energy stored in an inductor of 2 H carrying 3 A is
A. 12 J
B. 9 J
C. 18 J
D. 6 J
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
E = ½LI² = 0.5 × 2 × 9 = 9 J.
Q110Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The time constant of a series RL circuit with R = 10 Ω and L = 0.5 H is
A. 0.05 s
B. 0.5 s
C. 20 s
D. 5 s
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
τ = L/R = 0.5/10 = 0.05 s.
Q111Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The SI unit of conductance is
A. siemens
B. henry
C. weber
D. ohm
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Conductance G = 1/R and is measured in siemens (formerly mho).
Q112Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The magnitude of the charge on an electron is approximately
A. 9.1 × 10⁻¹⁹ coulomb
B. 6.02 × 10²³ coulomb
C. 1.6 × 10⁻³¹ coulomb
D. 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ coulomb
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C is the elementary charge. 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg is the mass of an electron.
Q113Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Thevenin’s equivalent of a linear network at a pair of terminals consists of
A. two voltage sources in parallel
B. a voltage source in series with a resistance
C. a current source in parallel with a resistance
D. a resistance only
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The source voltage is the open-circuit voltage and the resistance is that seen into the terminals with the sources deactivated.
Q114Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
A source of 12 V with an internal resistance of 4 Ω supplies a variable load. The maximum power that can be delivered to the load is
A. 9 W
B. 3 W
C. 18 W
D. 36 W
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Maximum power occurs at RL = 4 Ω: P = V²/(4R) = 144/16 = 9 W.
Q115Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Three resistors of 9 Ω each are connected in delta. The equivalent star resistance of each arm is
A. 27 Ω
B. 6 Ω
C. 3 Ω
D. 9 Ω
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
In the delta-star conversion with equal resistances, R_star = R_delta/3 = 3 Ω.
Q116Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
A series RLC circuit has L = 1 mH and C = 1 μF. The resonant frequency is about
A. 1 kHz
B. 5.03 kHz
C. 15.9 kHz
D. 159 Hz
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
f0 = 1 / (2π√(LC)) = 1 / (2π × √(10⁻⁹)) = 1/(2π × 3.162 × 10⁻⁵) = 5033 Hz.
Q117Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A series circuit has R = 3 Ω and XL = 4 Ω. Its power factor is
A. 0.75 lagging
B. 0.6 lagging
C. 0.8 lagging
D. unity
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
|Z| = √(9 + 16) = 5 Ω and cos φ = R/|Z| = 3/5 = 0.6.
Q118Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
In a balanced star connection, the line voltage is related to the phase voltage as
A. VL = √3 Vph
B. VL = Vph / √3
C. VL = 3 Vph
D. VL = Vph
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The line voltage is the phasor difference of two phase voltages 120° apart, which gives √3 times the phase voltage.
Q119Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
A balanced three-phase load takes a line current of 10 A at 400 V line voltage with a power factor of 0.8. The total real power is about
A. 5.54 kW
B. 3.2 kW
C. 4.0 kW
D. 9.6 kW
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
P = √3 VL IL cos φ = 1.732 × 400 × 10 × 0.8 = 5542 W.
Q120Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A sinusoidal voltage has a peak value of 325 V. Its RMS value is about
A. 230 V
B. 460 V
C. 162 V
D. 325 V
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Vrms = Vm/√2 = 325/1.414 = 229.8 V.
Q121Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The form factor of a sinusoidal waveform is
A. 1.11
B. 1.414
C. 1.57
D. 0.707
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Form factor = RMS value / average value = 0.707 Vm / 0.637 Vm = 1.11.
Q122Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
At the instant of switching on a circuit, an uncharged capacitor behaves as
A. a short circuit
B. an infinite resistance
C. a voltage source
D. an open circuit
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
With zero initial voltage and a changing current, the capacitor initially passes current freely, like a short circuit.
Q123Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Kirchhoff’s voltage law is based on the conservation of
A. charge
B. momentum
C. energy
D. mass
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
The algebraic sum of voltage rises and drops around a closed loop is zero.
Q124Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Nodal analysis of a network is based on
A. Norton’s theorem
B. Kirchhoff’s current law
C. Kirchhoff’s voltage law
D. Thevenin’s theorem
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Node voltages are the unknowns, and KCL is written at each node.
Q125Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The superposition theorem is applicable to
A. unilateral networks only
B. linear bilateral networks
C. non-linear networks
D. networks with diodes only
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
It requires linearity. Power cannot be superposed because it is not linear in the voltage or current.
Q126Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
In the two-wattmeter method of measuring three-phase power, at unity power factor the two wattmeters read
A. equal values with opposite signs
B. equal values
C. zero and the total power
D. one reads three times the other
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
W1 = W2 = VL IL cos 30° when the power factor is unity. At 0.5 lagging, one wattmeter reads zero.
Q127Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A coil of 100 turns links a flux that changes by 0.02 Wb in 0.1 s. The induced emf is
A. 2 V
B. 20 V
C. 200 V
D. 0.2 V
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
e = N dΦ/dt = 100 × 0.02 / 0.1 = 20 V.
Q128Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
A. charge
B. mass
C. angular momentum
D. energy
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The induced current opposes the change causing it. If it aided the change, energy would be created from nothing.
Q129Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The SI unit of magnetic flux density is
A. henry
B. weber
C. ampere-turn
D. tesla
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
One tesla is one weber per square metre.
Q130Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The reluctance of a magnetic circuit is analogous to which quantity in an electric circuit?
A. conductance
B. current
C. voltage
D. resistance
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
S = l/(μA) is analogous to R = l/(σA). MMF is analogous to emf and flux is analogous to current.
Q131Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
A 4-pole DC generator has a wave winding with 500 conductors and a flux of 0.02 Wb per pole. At 1200 rpm, the generated emf is
A. 200 V
B. 800 V
C. 400 V
D. 100 V
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
E = Φ Z N P / (60 A). For wave winding A = 2: E = 0.02 × 500 × 1200 × 4 / (60 × 2) = 400 V.
Q132Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A DC motor is supplied at 220 V and takes an armature current of 20 A. The armature resistance is 0.5 Ω. The back emf is
A. 230 V
B. 219 V
C. 210 V
D. 200 V
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Eb = V − Ia Ra = 220 − 20 × 0.5 = 210 V.
Q133Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The speed of a DC shunt motor can be increased above its normal speed by
A. increasing the armature resistance
B. reducing the armature voltage
C. increasing the field flux
D. reducing the field flux
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
N ∝ Eb/Φ, so weakening the field raises the speed (field control).
Q134Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A DC series motor should never be started without a load because
A. its torque would be too low
B. its speed would become dangerously high
C. it would draw no current
D. its field would burn out
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
With no load, the armature current and the flux are both small, and the speed rises to a very high value.
Q135Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The emf equation of a transformer is
A. E = 2.22 f N Φm
B. E = 4.44 f N Φm
C. E = 1.11 f N Φm
D. E = 4.44 f N² Φm
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
E_rms = 4.44 f N Φm, where Φm is the maximum core flux.
Q136Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A transformer has a primary voltage of 11 kV and a secondary voltage of 400 V. If the primary has 1100 turns, the secondary has
A. 400 turns
B. 30 turns
C. 40 turns
D. 4 turns
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
N2 = N1 × V2/V1 = 1100 × 400/11 000 = 40 turns.
Q137Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The open circuit test on a transformer gives
A. the regulation at unity power factor
B. the copper loss
C. the iron (core) loss
D. the efficiency at full load
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
At no load, the current is small, so copper loss is negligible and the input power is the core loss.
Q138Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The efficiency of a transformer is maximum when
A. copper loss is zero
B. iron loss is zero
C. copper loss equals iron loss
D. the load is zero
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Iron loss is constant and copper loss varies with the square of the load. The efficiency peaks when the two are equal.
Q139Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
An autotransformer is most economical compared to a two-winding transformer when the transformation ratio is
A. close to 1
B. zero
C. exactly 10
D. much greater than 10
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
With K = V1/V2 (greater than 1), the copper saved is a fraction 1/K of that in the two-winding transformer. The saving is therefore greatest when K is close to 1.
Q140Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
An induction motor runs at 1440 rpm on a 50 Hz supply with 4 poles. The slip is
A. 2.5 percent
B. 6 percent
C. 4 percent
D. 40 percent
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Ns = 120 × 50/4 = 1500 rpm. s = (1500 − 1440)/1500 = 0.04.
Q141Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The synchronous speed of a 6-pole machine on a 50 Hz supply is
A. 1000 rpm
B. 3000 rpm
C. 1500 rpm
D. 500 rpm
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Ns = 120 f / P = 120 × 50 / 6 = 1000 rpm.
Q142Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The frequency of the rotor current of an induction motor at a slip of 0.04 on a 50 Hz supply is
A. 1 Hz
B. 50 Hz
C. 2 Hz
D. 4 Hz
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
fr = s f = 0.04 × 50 = 2 Hz.
Q143Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Star-delta starting of a three-phase induction motor reduces the starting line current to
A. one-half of the direct on-line value
B. equal to the direct on-line value
C. one-ninth of the direct on-line value
D. one-third of the direct on-line value
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
In star, the phase voltage is 1/√3 of the line voltage, so the line current falls to 1/3.
Q144Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
An over-excited synchronous motor operates at
A. zero power factor lagging only
B. a lagging power factor
C. a leading power factor
D. a power factor of zero
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
An over-excited motor supplies reactive power to the system, so it acts like a capacitor (synchronous condenser).
Q145Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The voltage regulation of an alternator is highest for a load of
A. lagging power factor
B. zero power
C. leading power factor
D. unity power factor
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
For a lagging load, armature reaction is demagnetising, and the terminal voltage falls the most.
Q146Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A single-phase induction motor is not self-starting because the stator field is
A. zero at all times
B. pulsating and not rotating
C. direct current
D. rotating at twice the speed
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
A pulsating field can be resolved into two equal and opposite rotating fields that give no net torque at standstill.
Q147Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A universal motor can operate on
A. ac supply only at a fixed frequency
B. three-phase supply only
C. both ac and dc supplies
D. dc supply only
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
It is a series-wound motor, whose torque direction does not change when the supply polarity reverses.
Q148Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Interpoles in a DC machine are provided to
A. increase the main flux
B. reduce the iron loss
C. increase the number of poles
D. improve commutation and reduce sparking
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
They produce a flux that induces an emf in the coil under commutation which opposes the reactance voltage.
Q149Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
For the same power transmitted at the same power factor, if the transmission voltage is doubled, the line loss becomes
A. one-fourth
B. one-half
C. one-eighth
D. double
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
For a fixed power, I ∝ 1/V, so I²R falls to one-fourth.
Q150Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The skin effect in a conductor carrying alternating current increases with
A. the length of the conductor
B. the lowering of the temperature only
C. the resistivity of the conductor
D. the frequency of the current
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
At higher frequencies the current crowds toward the surface, so the effective resistance rises.
Q151Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Corona on an overhead line starts when the potential gradient at the conductor surface exceeds about
A. 3 kV/cm
B. 30 kV/cm (peak) in air
C. 300 kV/cm
D. 3000 kV/cm
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The dielectric strength of air at normal conditions is about 30 kV/cm peak (21.1 kV/cm rms). Beyond that the air ionises.
Q152Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The string efficiency of a string of suspension insulators is always
A. equal to 200 percent
B. less than 100 percent
C. equal to 100 percent
D. more than 100 percent
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The voltage across the units is not equal, with the unit nearest the conductor taking the most. So the efficiency is below 100 percent.
Q153Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
The span of an overhead line is 200 m, the weight per metre of conductor is 1.5 kg and the working tension is 1500 kg. The sag is
A. 7.5 m
B. 5 m
C. 10 m
D. 2.5 m
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
S = wl²/8T = 1.5 × 200² / (8 × 1500) = 60 000 / 12 000 = 5 m.
Q154Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
A generator has a reactance of 0.2 pu on a 50 MVA base. Its reactance on a 100 MVA base at the same voltage is
A. 0.4 pu
B. 0.8 pu
C. 0.2 pu
D. 0.1 pu
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Z_new = Z_old × (MVA_new / MVA_old) = 0.2 × 100/50 = 0.4 pu.
Q155Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
SF6 gas is used in high voltage circuit breakers because it has
A. high dielectric strength and excellent arc quenching properties
B. a high electrical conductivity
C. high combustibility
D. a very low density
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
SF6 is electronegative; it captures free electrons and rapidly restores insulation after current zero.
Q156Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The Buchholz relay is used for the protection of
A. alternators against overspeed
B. transmission lines against lightning
C. induction motors against overload
D. oil-filled transformers against internal faults
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
It is placed in the pipe between the tank and the conservator and responds to gas from faults or a surge of oil.
Q157Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A lightning arrester is connected
A. between two phases
B. between the line and earth
C. in series with the line
D. across the transformer secondary only
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
It offers a low-resistance path to earth during a surge and restores a high resistance once the voltage returns to normal.
Q158Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The power factor of an inductive load is improved by connecting
A. a diode in series with it
B. a capacitor in parallel with it
C. a resistor in series with it
D. an inductor in parallel with it
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The capacitor supplies the reactive current that the inductive load needs, so the supply current falls.
Q159Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Compared with a radial distribution system, a ring main system
A. costs less
B. uses a single feeding path
C. gives better continuity of supply
D. has a poorer voltage regulation
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
In a ring each load can be fed from two directions, so a fault in one section does not cut off the supply.
Q160Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
A consumer has a maximum demand of 100 kW and uses 1800 kWh in a day. The daily load factor is
A. 0.18
B. 1.33
C. 0.5
D. 0.75
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
Load factor = average load / maximum demand = (1800/24)/100 = 75/100 = 0.75.
Q161Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
The diversity factor of a group of consumers is always
A. less than 1
B. between 0 and 1
C. greater than or equal to 1
D. equal to 0
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
It is the sum of the individual maximum demands divided by the maximum demand of the group, and the group maximum can never exceed the sum.
Q162Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A pumped storage hydro plant is mainly used to meet
A. base load
B. peak load
C. a constant load throughout the day
D. emergency only
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Water is pumped up during off-peak hours and released through the turbines at peak demand.
Q163Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A permanent magnet moving coil (PMMC) instrument can be used on
A. ac only
B. high frequency ac only
C. dc only
D. both ac and dc
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
The deflection torque depends on the direction of the current, so on ac it would just vibrate with a zero mean reading.
Q164Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Medium
A dynamometer type wattmeter can be used to measure power in
A. only when the frequency is above 1 kHz
B. both ac and dc circuits
C. dc circuits only
D. ac circuits only
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
Its fixed coils carry the load current and the moving coil carries a current proportional to the voltage, so the torque is proportional to power.
Q165Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
A galvanometer of 5 Ω resistance gives full-scale deflection at 50 mA. The shunt needed to convert it to a 5 A ammeter is about
A. 0.0505 Ω
B. 0.005 Ω
C. 5 Ω
D. 0.5 Ω
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Rsh = Ig Rg / (I − Ig) = 0.05 × 5 / 4.95 = 0.0505 Ω.
Q166Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
A meter with a full-scale current of 1 mA and a resistance of 100 Ω is to be used as a 100 V voltmeter. The series resistance needed is
A. 100 000 Ω
B. 1000 Ω
C. 99 900 Ω
D. 9900 Ω
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Rs = V/Ig − Rg = 100/0.001 − 100 = 99 900 Ω.
Q167Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Creeping in an energy meter is
A. the vibration of the disc
B. the fast rotation of the disc at full load
C. the stopping of the disc at low loads
D. the slow rotation of the disc with the pressure coil energised and no load current
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
It is caused by over-compensation of friction and is prevented by drilling holes or fixing a small projection on the disc.
Q168Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, P = 100 Ω, Q = 1000 Ω and S = 500 Ω. The unknown R (in the arm that balances P/Q = R/S) is
A. 50 Ω
B. 500 Ω
C. 5000 Ω
D. 5 Ω
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
At balance P/Q = R/S, so R = S × P/Q = 500 × 100/1000 = 50 Ω.
Q169Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A megger is used to measure
A. insulation resistance
B. the frequency
C. the power factor
D. low resistance of a coil
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
It applies a high dc voltage (500 V to 5 kV) and measures the very small leakage current.
Q170Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
On a CRO, one cycle of a waveform spans 4 divisions with the time base set to 0.5 ms/div. The frequency is
A. 250 Hz
B. 2000 Hz
C. 50 Hz
D. 500 Hz
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
T = 4 × 0.5 = 2 ms, so f = 1/T = 500 Hz.
Q171Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
A 0 to 100 V voltmeter has a guaranteed accuracy of ±1 percent of full scale. When it reads 50 V, the maximum possible error in the reading is
A. ±0.01 percent
B. ±2 percent
C. ±1 percent
D. ±0.5 percent
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The limiting error is ±1 V, which is 1/50 = 2 percent of the reading. Readings should be taken near full scale.
Q172Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The secondary of a current transformer should never be
A. connected to an ammeter
B. earthed
C. open-circuited while the primary is carrying current
D. short-circuited
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
With the secondary open, the secondary ampere-turns that normally balance the primary vanish, so the core flux and the induced voltage rise dangerously.
Q173Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A closed-loop control system is one in which
A. there is no controller
B. the output has no effect on the control action
C. the output is fed back to influence the control action
D. the input is always zero
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Feedback lets the system compare the output with the desired value and correct errors.
Q174Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The transfer function of a linear system is the ratio of
A. the input to the output in the time domain
B. the Laplace transform of the output to that of the input with zero initial conditions
C. the steady state output to the transient output
D. the Fourier transform of the input to the output
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
G(s) = C(s)/R(s), valid for linear time-invariant systems.
Q175Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The type of the system with open-loop transfer function G(s) = 10 / [s(s + 2)] is
A. 2
B. 0
C. 3
D. 1
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
The type is the number of poles at the origin, here one.
Q176Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A linear time-invariant system is stable if all the poles of its transfer function lie in
A. the right half of the s-plane
B. the origin
C. the left half of the s-plane
D. the imaginary axis only
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Poles in the left half give decaying exponentials. A pole in the right half gives a growing response.
Q177Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A second order system with a damping ratio of 0.5 is
A. undamped
B. overdamped
C. critically damped
D. underdamped
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
For 0 < ζ < 1 the response oscillates with a decaying amplitude.
Q178Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The integral action in a PID controller mainly
A. eliminates the steady state error
B. increases the steady state error
C. reduces the noise
D. increases the speed of response only
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The integral term keeps building up the control output as long as an error persists.
Q179Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The typical cut-in (forward) voltage of a silicon p-n junction diode is
A. 0.3 V
B. 5 V
C. 0.7 V
D. 1.5 V
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Silicon starts conducting at about 0.6 to 0.7 V and germanium at about 0.2 to 0.3 V.
Q180Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A Zener diode is used as a voltage regulator when operated in
A. the forward region
B. the cut-off region
C. the reverse breakdown region
D. the saturation region
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
In breakdown the voltage across the Zener remains nearly constant over a wide range of current.
Q181Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
A transistor has a common base current gain α = 0.98. Its common emitter current gain β is
A. 98
B. 4.9
C. 0.02
D. 49
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
β = α/(1 − α) = 0.98 / 0.02 = 49.
Q182Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A transistor is used as a switch by operating it between
A. the active region and saturation
B. the active region and cut-off
C. cut-off and saturation
D. breakdown and cut-off
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
In cut-off it is OFF (open) and in saturation it is ON (closed) with a small voltage drop.
Q183Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The binary equivalent of the decimal number 13 is
A. 1001
B. 1101
C. 1110
D. 1011
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
13 = 8 + 4 + 1 = 1101 in binary.
Q184Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The output of a NAND gate is LOW only when
A. all its inputs are LOW
B. any input is HIGH
C. all its inputs are HIGH
D. any input is LOW
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
NAND is the complement of AND, and AND is HIGH only when all inputs are HIGH.
Q185Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
An inverting op-amp amplifier has Rf = 100 kΩ and Rin = 10 kΩ. The voltage gain is
A. 10
B. −11
C. −10
D. −0.1
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Gain = −Rf/Rin = −100/10 = −10.
Q186Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A full-wave rectifier is fed from a 50 Hz supply. The ripple frequency at its output is
A. 100 Hz
B. 25 Hz
C. 50 Hz
D. 200 Hz
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Both half cycles of the input produce output pulses, so the ripple frequency is twice the supply frequency.
Q187Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Once triggered, an SCR continues to conduct until
A. the gate is made negative
B. the anode current falls below the holding current
C. the anode voltage becomes positive
D. the gate current is removed
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The gate loses control after turn-on. The device turns off only when the anode current drops below the holding current.
Q188Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
In a single-phase half-wave uncontrolled rectifier with a resistive load, the average output voltage is
A. Vm / π
B. Vm / √2
C. 2Vm / π
D. Vm / 2
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
The average over a full cycle of a half-wave rectified sine is Vm/π. For a peak of 314 V this is about 100 V.
Q189Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A step-down chopper has an input of 200 V and a duty ratio of 0.4. The average output voltage is
A. 80 V
B. 500 V
C. 120 V
D. 200 V
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
Vo = D × Vin = 0.4 × 200 = 80 V.
Q190Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A cycloconverter converts
A. dc of one voltage into dc of another voltage
B. ac into dc
C. dc into ac
D. ac of one frequency into ac of another frequency directly
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
It changes the frequency without any intermediate dc link, and is used in large low-speed ac drives.
Q191Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A power MOSFET is
A. a latching device
B. a voltage controlled majority carrier device
C. a two-terminal device
D. a current controlled minority carrier device
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The gate voltage controls the channel. It switches very fast, since there is no minority carrier storage.
Q192Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The Ward-Leonard system is used for
A. power factor improvement
B. measuring torque
C. starting an induction motor
D. smooth speed control of a dc motor over a wide range
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: D
A motor-generator set supplies a variable voltage to the armature of the dc motor, which is controlled through the generator field.
Q193Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A lamp emitting 3000 lumens falls uniformly on a surface of 10 m². The illumination is
A. 0.0033 lux
B. 30 lux
C. 300 lux
D. 3000 lux
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
Illumination = flux / area = 3000/10 = 300 lux.
Q194Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The illumination at a point on a surface from a point source varies
A. inversely as the square of the distance
B. directly as the square of the distance
C. directly as the distance
D. inversely as the distance
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
E = I cos θ / d² is the inverse square law.
Q195Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
Induction heating works on the principle of
A. the passage of current through a resistive element
B. dielectric loss in an insulator
C. eddy currents induced in the workpiece
D. arcing between electrodes
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: C
An alternating magnetic field induces eddy currents in a conducting charge, which heat it.
Q196Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
DC series motors are widely used in traction because they have
A. a constant speed
B. a high starting torque
C. a low starting current
D. a very high no-load speed
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The torque varies with the square of the current, so the series motor gives a large torque at low speed.
Q197Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A signal has a maximum frequency component of 5 kHz. The minimum sampling frequency (Nyquist rate) is
A. 2.5 kHz
B. 10 kHz
C. 20 kHz
D. 5 kHz
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The Nyquist rate is twice the highest frequency, 2 × 5 = 10 kHz.
Q198Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
The Laplace transform of a unit step function is
A. 1
B. 1/s
C. 1/s²
D. s
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
L{u(t)} = ∫ e^(−st) dt from 0 to ∞ = 1/s.
Q199Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Easy
A system is linear if it satisfies the principle of
A. time invariance
B. superposition
C. causality
D. stability
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: B
The response to a sum of inputs is the sum of responses (additivity), and scaling the input scales the output (homogeneity).
Q200Electrical Engineering (SSC JE)
Hard
The period of the signal x(t) = sin(100πt) is
A. 0.02 s
B. 0.01 s
C. 2 s
D. 0.2 s
View answer and explanation
Correct Option: A
ω = 100π rad/s, so T = 2π/ω = 2π/(100π) = 0.02 s.

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