Free paper practiceArchived exam paper2025
NEET 2025 – PYQ Practice
NEET UG (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) • 2025 • 179 Questions • Free practice with solutions
Subjects included:Physics (45)Chemistry (44)Biology (90)
CBT TEST SIMULATION
⏱️ Start Timed Mock →Want to test yourself under real exam timing?
Attempt this paper with interactive countdown, marking scheme, palette overview, and instant scorecard.
Showing 179 Questions with Step-by-Step Solutions
Q1Physics
A parallel plate capacitor made of circular plates is being charged such that the surface charge density on its plates is increasing at a constant rate with time. The magnetic field arising due to displacement current is:
A. Non-zero everywhere with maximum at the imaginary cylindrical surface connecting peripheries of the plates
B. Zero between the plates and non-zero outside
C. Zero at all places
D. Constant between the plates and zero outside the plates
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q2Physics
A. 1.2 J
B. 1.5 J
C. 0.8 J
D. 1.0 J
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q3Physics
A. 0
B. 84 NS
C. 21 NS
D. 7 NS
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q4Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q5Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q6Physics
A. 2.5 A
B. 1.5 A
C. 2.0 A
D. 0.5 A
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q7Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q8Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q9Physics
A. 9 volt
B. 10 volt
C. 5 volt
D. 6 volt
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q10Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q11Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q12Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q13Physics
A microscope has an objective of focal length 2 cm , eyepiece of focal length 4 cm and the tube length of 40 cm . If the distance of distinct vision of eye is 25 cm , the magnification in the microscope is
A. 150
B. 250
C. 100
D. 125
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q14Physics
A. 0.5
B. 0.75
C. 0.25
D. 0.40
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q15Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q16Physics
A. 200 N
B. 
C. 100 N
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q17Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q18Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q19Physics
A. 1.4 atm
B. 1.8 atm
C. 1.3 atm
D. 1.6 atm
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q20Physics
A. 1.67 nm
B. 2.67 nm
C. 0.067 nm
D. 0.67 nm
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q21Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q22Physics
A. A and D
B. B and D
C. A only
D. A and C
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q23Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q24Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q25Physics
A. OR
B. NOR
C. AND
D. NAND
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q26Physics
A. 0.116 kg
B. 0.156 kg
C. 0.125 kg
D. 0.144 kg
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q27Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q28Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q29Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q30Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q31Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q32Physics
The Sun rotates around its centre once in 27 days. What will be the period of revolution if the Sun were to expand to twice its present radius without any external influence? Assume the Sun to be a sphere of uniform density.
A. 115 days
B. 108 days
C. 100 days
D. 105 days
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q33Physics
The radius of Martian orbit around the Sun is about 4 times the radius of the orbit of Mercury. The Martian year is 687 Earth days. Then which of the following is the length of 1 year on Mercury?
A. 172 earth days
B. 124 earth days
C. 88 earth days
D. 225 earth days
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q34Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q35Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q36Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q37Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q38Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q39Physics
A body weighs 48 N on the surface of the earth. The gravitational force experienced by the body due to the earth at a height equal to one-third the radius of the earth from its surface is:
A. 32 N
B. 36 N
C. 16 N
D. 27 N
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q40Physics
An unpolarized light beam travelling in air is incident on a medium of refractive index 1.73 at Brewster's angle. Then
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q41Physics
A. 2.5 A
B. 3.0 A
C. 1.5 A
D. 2.0 A
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q42Physics
A. 1.60
B. 1.33
C. 2.66
D. 2.33
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q43Physics
A. 4.98 cm
B. 5.00 cm
C. 5.18 cm
D. 5.08 cm
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q44Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q45Physics
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q46Chemistry
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q47Chemistry
The correct order of decreasing acidity of the following aliphatic acids is
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q48Chemistry
Which one of the following reactions does NOT belong to "Lassaigne's test"?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q49Chemistry
A. 210 s
B. 21.0 s
C. 69.3 s
D. 23.1 s
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q50Chemistry
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: A hypothetical diatomic molecule with bond order zero is quite stable.
Statement II: As bond order increases, the bond length increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
B. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q51Chemistry
Which of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?
A. 
B. 
C. 0.01 M Urea
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q52Chemistry
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q53Chemistry
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q54Chemistry
A. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
B. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
C. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
D. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q55Chemistry
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Like nitrogen that can form ammonia, arsenic can form arsine.
Statement II: Antimony cannot form antimony pentoxide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q56Chemistry
A. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
B. Statement I is false but Statement II is true
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q57Chemistry
Which one of the following reactions does NOT give benzene as the product?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q58Chemistry
A. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
B. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
C. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
D. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q59Chemistry
A. 5
B. 6
C. 2
D. 3
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q60Chemistry
A. C and D only
B. A, C, and E only
C. A, B, and E only
D. C and E only
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q61Chemistry
A. +133.0
B. +220.5
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q62Chemistry
A. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
C. A-II, B-IV, C-I,D-III
D. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q63Chemistry
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q64Chemistry
A. Maltose
B. Sucrose
C. D-Glucose
D. D-Fructose
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q65Chemistry
A. 10
B. 11
C. 6
D. 8
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q66Chemistry
A. 0.033
B. 0.021
C. 83.1
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q67Chemistry
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q68Chemistry
A. 0.225
B. 0.215
C. 0.115
D. 0.125
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q69Chemistry
A. The solution is ideal.
B. The solution has volume greater than the sum of individual volumes.
C. The solution shows positive deviation.
D. The solution shows negative deviation.
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q70Chemistry
A. B, C, and D only
B. B, D, and E only
C. A, B, and C only
D. A, B, and D only
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q71Chemistry
A. A and D only
B. A, D and E only
C. A and C only
D. B and E only
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q72Chemistry
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 2 minutes
D. 4 minutes
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q73Chemistry
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q74Chemistry
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q75Chemistry
Dalton's Atomic theory could not explain which of the following?
A. Law of multiple proportion
B. Law of gaseous volume
C. Law of conservation of mass
D. Law of constant proportion
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q76Chemistry
A. A, C only
B. B, C only
C. A, D only
D. B, D only
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q77Chemistry
A. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
D. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q78Chemistry
A. N -ethylethanamine > ethanamine > N-methylaniline > benzenamine
B. 
C. N -methylaniline > benzenamine > ethanamine > N-ethylethanamine
D. N-ethylethanamine > ethanamine > benzenamine > N-methylaniline
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q79Chemistry
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q80Chemistry
Which one of the following compounds does not decolourize bromine water?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q81Chemistry
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q82Chemistry
A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
D. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q83Chemistry
A. D and E only
B. A, C and D only
C. B and E only
D. A and C only
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q84Chemistry
Which one of the following compounds can exist as cis-trans isomers?
A. 1, 1-Dimethylcyclopropane
B. 1, 2-Dimethylcyclohexane
C. Pent-1-ene
D. 2-Methylhex-2-ene
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q85Chemistry
A. B, C and D only
B. A, B and C only
C. A and B only
D. A and C only
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q86Chemistry
A. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
C. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
D. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q87Chemistry
A. B, C, D only
B. A, C, D only
C. A, D only
D. B, C only
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q88Chemistry
A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q89Chemistry
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q90Biology
A. White color colonies will be selected.
B. Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates can be selected.
C. Using ampicillin & tetracycline containing medium plate.
D. Blue color colonies will be selected.
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q91Biology
The protein portion of an enzyme is called:
A. Apoenzyme
B. Prosthetic group
C. Cofactor
D. Coenzyme
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q92Biology
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.
Statement II : The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
C. Both statement I and statement II are correct
D. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q93Biology
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : A typical unfertilised, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8 nucleate and 7-celled.
Reason (R) : The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q94Biology
Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to:
A. A mass of proliferating cell
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to original location
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A, B, D only
B. B, C, D only
C. A, B only
D. A, B, C only
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q95Biology
Which one of the following is the characteristic feature of gymnosperms?
A. Seeds are absent
B. Gymnosperms have flowers for reproduction
C. Seeds are enclosed in fruits
D. Seeds are naked
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q96Biology
A. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
C. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
D. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q97Biology
Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?
A. Chromosome 1
B. Chromosome 10
C. Chromosome X
D. Chromosome Y
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q98Biology
Which of the following statements about RuBisCO is true?
A. It is an enzyme involved in the photolysis of water
B. It catalyzes the carboxylation of RuBP
C. It is active only in the dark
D. It has higher affinity for oxygen than carbon dioxide
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q99Biology
The first menstruation is called :
A. Diapause
B. Ovulation
C. Menopause
D. Menarche
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q100Biology
Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?
A. Virus
B. Phage
C. Bacterium
D. Yeast
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q101Biology
Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrate.
Reason (R) : The members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period, the notochord is replaced by cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in adults.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. (A) is true but (R) is false
B. (A) is false but (R) is true
C. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
D. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q102Biology
What is the main function of the spindle fibers during mitosis?
A. To repair damaged DNA
B. To regulate cell growth
C. To separate the chromosomes
D. To synthesize new DNA
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q103Biology
A. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
C. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
D. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q104Biology
A. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
B. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
C. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
D. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q105Biology
In frog, the Renal portal system is a special venous connection that acts to link:
A. Kidney and intestine
B. Kidney and lower part of body
C. Liver and intestine
D. Liver and kidney
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q106Biology
Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?
A. Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
B. Removal of introns and joining of exons.
C. Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA.
D. Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA.
E. Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. B, C, E only
B. C, D, E only
C. A, B, C only
D. B, C, D only
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q107Biology
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q108Biology
Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.
Reason (R) : The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q109Biology
Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?
A. Predation
B. Amensalism
C. Commensalism
D. Mutualism
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q110Biology
Find the correct statement :
(A) In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.
(B) In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
(C) In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation.
(D) In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.
(E) In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. B, C, D and E only
B. A, C, D and E only
C. A and E only
D. B and C only
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q111Biology
A. D
B. c
C. A
D. B
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q112Biology
Frogs respire in water by skin and buccal cavity and on land by skin, buccal cavity and lungs.
Choose the correct answer from the following :
A. The statement is false for water but true for land
B. The statement is false for both the environment
C. The statement is true for water but false for land
D. The statement is true for both the environment
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q113Biology
Consider the following statements regarding function of adrenal medullary hormones:
(A) It causes pupilary constriction.
(B) It is a hyperglycemic hormone.
(C) It causes piloerection.
(D) It increases strength of heart contraction.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. A, C and D only
B. D only
C. C and D only
D. B, C and D only
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q114Biology
Read the following statements on plant growth and development.
(A) Parthenocarpy can be induced by auxins.
(B) Plant growth regulators can be involved in promotion as well as inhibition of growth.
(C) Dedifferentiation is a pre-requisite for re-differentiation.
(D) Abscisic acid is a plant growth promoter.
(E) Apical dominance promotes the growth of lateral buds.
Choose the option with all correct statements.
A. A, D, E only
B. B, D, E only
C. A, B, C only
D. A, C, E only
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q115Biology
Which of the following hormones released from the pituitary is actually synthesized in the hypothalamus?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
B. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
C. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q116Biology
Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?
A. Beer
B. Rum
C. Whisky
D. Brandy
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q117Biology
What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?
A. Autosomal dominant pattern
B. X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
C. Mendelian inheritance pattern
D. Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q118Biology
A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
C. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
D. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q119Biology
Which of the following is an example of a zygomorphic flower?
A. Pea
B. Chilli
C. Petunia
D. Datura
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q120Biology
Which of following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?
A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. B only
B. E only
C. A only
D. D only
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q121Biology
Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?
A. Zoos and botanical gardens
B. Protected areas
C. National Park
D. Wildlife Sanctuary
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q122Biology
Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?
A. Ram Udar
B. Birbal Sahni
C. S.R. Kashyap
D. Ramdeo Misra
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q123Biology
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.
Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
C. Both statement I and statement II are correct
D. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q124Biology
Given below are two statements :
Statement 1 : Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.
Statement II : RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
C. Both statement I and statement II are correct
D. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q125Biology
A. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
B. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
C. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
D. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q126Biology
All living members of the class Cyclostomata are :
A. Symbiotic
B. Ectoparasite
C. Free living
D. Endoparasite
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q127Biology
Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for
A. Liver disease treatment
B. Removing clots from blood vessels
C. Curd production
D. Ethanol production
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q128Biology
Role of the water vascular system in Echinoderms is :
A. Respiration and Locomotion
B. Excretion and Locomotion
C. Capture and transport of food
D. Digestion and Respiration
E. Digestion and Excretion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. B and C Only
B. B, D and E Only
C. A and B Only
D. A and C Only
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q129Biology
A. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
D. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q130Biology
A. C and D only
B. A and C only
C. B and D only
D. D and E only
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q131Biology
What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?
A. High fatality risk to mother
B. Expensive instruments and reagents
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors
D. Less adoption of orphans
E. Not available in India
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. A, B, C, D only
B. A, B, C, E, F only
C. B, D, F only
D. A, C, D, F only
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q132Biology
Consider the following :
A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis.
B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females.
C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte.
D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. B and D are true
B. B and C are true
C. A and B are true
D. A and C are true
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q133Biology
In bryophytes, the gemmae help in which one of the following?
A. Nutrient absorption
B. Gaseous exchange
C. Sexual reproduction
D. Asexual reproduction
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q134Biology
Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A), and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The primary function of the Golgi apparatus is to package the materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum and deliver it to intracellular targets and outside the cell.
Reason (R) : Vesicles containing materials made by the endoplasmic reticulum fuse with the cis face of the Golgi apparatus, and they are modified and released from the trans face of the Golgi apparatus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q135Biology
Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?
A. Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms
B. Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms
C. Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms
D. Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q136Biology
After maturation, in primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate for interaction with antigens to secondary lymphoid organ(s) / tissue(s) like
A. thymus
B. bone marrow
C. spleen
D. Iymph nodes
E. Peyer's patches
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. E, A, B only
B. C, D, E only
C. B, C, D only
D. A, B, C only
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q137Biology
A. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
B. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
C. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q138Biology
How many meiotic and mitotic divisions need to occur for the development of a mature female gametophyte from the megaspore mother cell in an angiosperm plant?
A. 1 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
B. No Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
C. 2 Meiosis and 3 Mitosis
D. 1 Meiosis and 2 Mitosis
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q139Biology
Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and is a non-specific type of defence in the human body?
A. Cell-mediated Immunity
B. Humoral Immunity
C. Acquired Immunity
D. Innate Immunity
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q140Biology
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Fig fruit is a non-vegetarian fruit as it has enclosed fig wasps in it.
Statement II : Fig wasp and fig tree exhibit mutual relationship as fig wasp completes its life cycle in fig fruit and fig fruit gets pollinated by fig wasp.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
C. Both statement I and statement II are correct
D. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q141Biology
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
Reason (R) : Presence of more than one nucleus in the tapetum increases the efficiency of nourishing the developing microspore mother cells.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q142Biology
From the statements given below choose the correct option :
A. The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
B. Each ribosome has two sub-units.
C. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 40 S while that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S .
D. The two sub-units of 80 S ribosome are 60 S and 20 S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 20 S .
E. The two sub-units of 80 S are 60 S and 30 S and that of 70 S are 50 S and 30 S .
A. A, B, E are true
B. B, D, E are true
C. A, B, C are true
D. A, B, D are true
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q143Biology
Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Haem' as the prosthetic group?
A. Succinate dehydrogenase
B. Catalase
C. RuBisCo
D. Carbonic anhydrase
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q144Biology
What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?
A. Pulmonary vein
B. Vena cava
C. Aorta
D. Pulmonary artery
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q145Biology
Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.
A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte.
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. 
B. 
C. B, A, D, E, C
D. B, A, E, C, D
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q146Biology
The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from nonrecombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate.
Given below are two statements about this method:
Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies.
Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q147Biology
Which of the following microbes is NOT involved in the preparation of household products?
A. Aspergillus niger
B. Lactobacillus
C. Trichoderma polysporum
D. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
E. Propionibacterium sharmanii
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. C and D only
B. C and E only
C. A and B only
D. A and C only
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q148Biology
Silencing of specific mRNA is possible via RNAi because of
A. Complementary tRNA
B. Non-complementary ssRNA
C. Complementary dsRNA
D. Inhibitory ssRNA
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q149Biology
The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as
A. Cytochrome c oxidase
B. NADH dehydrogenase
C. 
D. Succinate dehydrogenase
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q150Biology
While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelome of that animal?
A. Schizocoelomate
B. Spongocoelomate
C. Acoelomate
D. Pseudocoelomate
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q151Biology
A. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q152Biology
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers.
Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
A. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
C. Both statement I and statement II are correct
D. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q153Biology
Which of the following is the unit of productivity of an Ecosystem?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q154Biology
A. 
B. Zero
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q155Biology
In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:
A. Integument
B. Aleurone layer
C. Coleoptile
D. Coleorhiza
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q156Biology
A. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
B. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
C. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q157Biology
Who proposed that the genetic code for amino acids should be made up of three nucleotides?
A. Jacque Monod
B. Franklin Stahl
C. George Gamow
D. Francis Crick
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q158Biology
Histones are enriched with -
A. Phenylalanine & Leucine
B. Phenylalanine & Arginine
C. Lysine & Arginine
D. Leucine & Lysine
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q159Biology
Which of the following enzyme(s) are NOT essential for gene cloning?
A. Restriction enzymes
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA mutase
D. DNA recombinase
E. DNA polymerase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A. D and E only
B. B and C only
C. C and D only
D. A and B only
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q160Biology
A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell well wall formation, DNA replication and respiration is
A. Cristae
B. Endoplasmic Reticulum
C. Mesosome
D. Chromatophores
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q161Biology
Which factor is important for termination of transcription?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q162Biology
Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?
A. Second digit of fore limb
B. First digit of the fore limb
C. First and Second digit of fore limb
D. First digit of hind limb
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q163Biology
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q164Biology
Identify the statement that is NOT correct.
A. Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
B. Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules
C. Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
D. The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q165Biology
A. A-IV, B- III, C-I, D-II
B. A-II, B- IV, C-III, D-I
C. A-II, B- III, C-IV, D-I
D. A-IV, B- III, C-II, D-I
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q166Biology
Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.
A. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
B. Phloem parenchyma is absent.
C. Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
D. Vascular bundles are scattered.
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q167Biology
Twins are born to a family that lives next door to you. The twins are a boy and a girl. Which of the following must be true?
A. They were conceived through in vitro fertilization.
B. 
C. They are monozygotic twins.
D. They are fraternal twins.
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q168Biology
Sweet potato and potato represent a certain type of evolution. Select the correct combination of terms to explain the evolution.
A. Homology, convergent
B. Analogy, divergent
C. Analogy, convergent
D. Homology, divergent
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q169Biology
Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?
A. Gibberellin
B. Cytokinin
C. Ethylene
D. Abscisic acid
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q170Biology
Why can't insulin be given orally to diabetic patients?
A. Because of structural variation
B. Its bioavailability will be increased
C. Human body will elicit strong immune response
D. It will be digested in Gastro-Intestinal (GI) tract
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q171Biology
A. Transferase
B. Ligase
C. Hydrolase
D. Lyase
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q172Biology
Given below are two statements:
Statement 1 : The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA.
Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
B. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
C. Both statement I and statement II are correct
D. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
View answer
Correct Option: C
Q173Biology
The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is
A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. B, E, A, D, C
B. D, E, A, B, C
C. D, E, A, C, B
D. B, E, A, C, D
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q174Biology
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: A
Q175Biology
Each of the following characteristics represent a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.
A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q176Biology
A. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
B. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
C. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
D. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q177Biology
Which one of the following equations represents the Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth of population?
A. 
B. 
C. 
D. 
View answer
Correct Option: D
Q178Biology
A. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
B. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
C. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
D. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
View answer
Correct Option: B
Q179Biology
Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:
A. Nodal tissue
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. A, C and D Only
B. A, B and D Only
C. A, B and C Only
D. A, B, C and D
View answer
Correct Option: C
Questions about this paper
What is the NEET UG (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) 2025 question paper on this page?
It is an archived NEET UG (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) 2025 paper with 179 questions, kept for practice. Where a source is credited on the page, the paper comes from that source.
Which subjects does NEET 2025 – PYQ Practice cover?
The 179 questions are grouped by subject: Biology (90), Physics (45) and Chemistry (44).
Where can I find the answer key for NEET 2025 – PYQ Practice?
Every question on this page has a "View answer" section showing the correct option, with an explanation where one is available. There is no separate download to wait for.
Can I save NEET 2025 – PYQ Practice as a PDF?
There is no separate PDF file. The whole paper is on this page, so you can use your browser's Print option and choose "Save as PDF" to keep a copy for offline revision.
How should I use this paper to prepare for NEET UG (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test)?
First attempt it as a timed mock using the "Start timed mock" button, then review each answer here. Note the subjects where you lost marks and revise those before the next paper.
A clear next step
Turn this paper into a focused revision session.
You do not need to finish every topic today. Notice what this paper asks you to revisit.
What to know
Paper labels identify the available record. Use the original paper and final official key to resolve discrepancies.
Sources and answer-key policyHow to use this page
Review the questions you missed, check the reasoning, and choose one related topic to practise.
Build a topic practice set