Free paper practice
NEET 2021 – PYQ Practice
NEET UG (National Eligibility cum Entrance Test) • 2021 • 174 Questions • Free practice
Q1Physics
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q2Physics
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q3Physics
A body is executing simple harmonic motion with frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is :
A. 4n
B. n
C. 2n
D. 3n
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q4Physics
A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the cable is represented by :
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Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q5Physics
A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6MeV while that of fragments is 8.5MeV. The total gain in the Binding Energy in the process is :
A. 216MeV
B. 0.9MeV
C. 9.4MeV
D. 804MeV
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q6Physics
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q7Physics
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Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q8Physics
Polar molecules are the molecules :
A. having a permanent electric dipole moment
B. having zero dipole moment
C. acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of electric field due to displacement of charges
D. acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic field is absent
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q9Physics
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Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q10Physics
A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is :
A. 0.052 cm
B. 0.52 cm
C. 0.026 cm
D. 0.26 cm
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q11Physics
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Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q12Physics
In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs?
A. 62 cm
B. 60 cm
C. 21.6 cm
D. 64 cm
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q13Physics
A particle is released from height S from the surface of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is three times its potential energy. The height from the surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that instant are respectively -
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q14Physics
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q15Physics
A. 7.0 kW
B. 10.2 kW
C. 8.1 kW
D. 12.3 kW
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q16Physics
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q17Physics
Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and identify the correct answer.
(A) A Zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when used as a voltage regulator.
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
A. (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
B. (A) and (B) both are correct.
C. (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
D. (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q18Physics
A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is suspended by it is -
A. 0.628 s
B. 0.0628 s
C. 6.28 s
D. 3.14 s
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q19Physics
The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.
A. No current will flow in p-type, current will only flow in n-type
B. Current in n-type = current in p-type
C. current in p-type > current in n-type
D. current in n-type > current in p-type
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Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q20Physics
A. towards the right as its potential energy will increase.
B. towards the left as its potential energy will increase.
C. towards the right as its potential energy will decrease.
D. towards the left as its potential energy will decrease.
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q21Physics
A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along the same axis with a distance 'd' between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a parallel beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be :
A. 30
B. 25
C. 15
D. 50
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q22Physics
The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v. The escape velocity from the surface of another planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and same mass density is :
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q23Physics
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Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q24Physics
A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope since :
A. a large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.
B. a large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.
C. a large aperture provides a better resolution.
D. All the above.
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q25Physics
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q26Physics
For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q27Physics
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q28Physics
A. 3C/2
B. 3C
C. 2C
D. C/2
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q29Physics
If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the dimensions of energy.
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q30Physics
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q31Physics
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Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q32Physics
A. (A)-(R); (B)-(Q); (C)-(S); (D)-(P)
B. (A)-(R); (B)-(S); (C)-(P); (D)-(Q)
C. (A)-(R); (B)-(S); (C)-(Q); (D)-(P)
D. (A)-(R); (B)-(P); (C)-(S); (D)-(Q)
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Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q33Physics
A. (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)
B. (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
C. (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)
D. (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R)
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q34Physics
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q35Physics
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q36Physics
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q37Physics
A. 1.4 kg m/s
B. 0 kg m/s
C. 4.2 kg m/s
D. 2.1 kg m/s
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q38Physics
A step down transformer connected to an ac mains supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44W lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the current in the primary circuit ?
A. 4A
B. 0.2A
C. 0.4A
D. 2A
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q39Physics
A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil in the shape of ,
(i) an equilateral tringle of side 'a'
(ii) A square of side 'a'
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case respectively are :
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q40Physics
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q41Physics
A. 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
B. 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
C. 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
D. 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
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Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q42Physics
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q43Physics
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q44Physics
Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 220V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
A. 1980 V
B. 660 V
C. 1320 V
D. 1520 V
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q45Physics
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q46Physics
A. 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
B. 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
C. 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
D. 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q47Physics
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q48Physics
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q49Chemistry
The incorrect statement among the following is :
A. Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially when finely divided.
B. Actinoid contraction is greater for element to element than lanthanoid contraction.
C. Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are colorless in the solid state.
D. Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and electricity.
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q50Chemistry
Given below are two statements :
Statement I :
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of narcotic analgesics.
Statement II :
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q51Chemistry
Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI.
Statement II : As the size of the elements, F, Cl, Br, I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength increases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q52Chemistry
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q53Chemistry
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Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q54Chemistry
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q55Chemistry
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q56Chemistry
A. 21.92 cm
B. 219.3 m
C. 219.2 m
D. 2192 m
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q57Chemistry
Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction? Choose the right option.
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q58Chemistry
The compound which shows metamerism is :
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q59Chemistry
A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
D. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q60Chemistry
Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q61Chemistry
Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and ionic radii because of :
A. Having similar chemical properties
B. Belonging to same group
C. Diagonal relationship
D. Lanthanoid contraction
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Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q62Chemistry
Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
A. Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms
B. hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N" donor atoms
C. Unidentate ligand
D. Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q63Chemistry
The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This product formation is based on?
A. Huckel's Rule
B. Saytzeff's Rule
C. Hund's Rule
D. Hofmann Rule
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q64Chemistry
An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right option for the empirical formula of this compound is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1]
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Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q65Chemistry
A. 6.25
B. 8.50
C. 5.50
D. 7.75
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q66Chemistry
The correct structure of 2, 6-dimethyl-dec-4-ene is
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q67Chemistry
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q68Chemistry
The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C-X' bond is :
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q69Chemistry
Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q70Chemistry
Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.
A. Noble gases have large positive values of electron gain enthalpy
B. Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
C. Noble gases have very high melting and boiling points
D. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces
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Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q71Chemistry
A. 2-methylbutan-2-ol
B. 2-methylpropan-2-ol
C. pentan-2-ol
D. pentan-3-ol
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q72Chemistry
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q73Chemistry
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Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q74Chemistry
A. 350 mm of Hg
B. 160 mm of Hg
C. 168 mm of Hg
D. 336 mm of Hg
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q75Chemistry
A. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q76Chemistry
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q77Chemistry
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q78Chemistry
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q79Chemistry
For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under isothermal condition, the correct option is :
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q80Chemistry
From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair?
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q81Chemistry
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Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q82Chemistry
Which of the following molecules is non-polar in nature?
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Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q83Chemistry
A. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
B. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
C. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q84Chemistry
In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicted against it?
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q85Biology
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
A. Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between nucleus and cytoplsm
B. Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic organelles
C. Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells
D. The perinuclear space forms a barrier between the materials present inside the nucleus and that of the cytoplasm
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q86Biology
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of pollen grains to stigma, is :
A. Cleistogamy
B. Xenogamy
C. Geitonogamy
D. Chasmogamy
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q87Biology
The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population is :
A. Genetic drift
B. Natural selection
C. Genetic recombination
D. Mutation
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q88Biology
A. Net square
B. Bullet square
C. Punch square
D. Punnett square
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q89Biology
Diadelphous stamens are found in
A. China rose and citrus
B. China rose
C. Citrus
D. Pea
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q90Biology
Gemmae are present in
A. Some Liverworts
B. Mosses
C. Pteridophytes
D. Some Gymnosperms
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q91Biology
A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
A. 8-nucleate and 8-celled
B. 8-nucleate and 7-celled
C. 7-nucleate and 8-celled
D. 7-nucleate and 7-celled
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q92Biology
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which mechanism the competing species might have evolved for their survival?
A. Predation
B. Resource partitioning
C. Competitive release
D. Mutualism
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q93Biology
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates out :
A. Polysaccharides
B. RNA
C. DNA
D. Histones
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q94Biology
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear as
A. Bright blue bands
B. Yellow bands
C. Bright orange bands
D. Dark red bands
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q95Biology
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
A. Blue-green algae
B. Green algae
C. Brown algae
D. Red algae
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q96Biology
Plants follow different pathways in response to environment of phases of life to form different kinds of structures. This ability is called
A. Maturity
B. Elasticity
C. Flexibility
D. Plasticity
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q97Biology
The site of perception of light in plants during photoperiodism is
A. Leaf
B. Shoot apex
C. Stem
D. Axillary bud
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Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q98Biology
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any given time, is referred as :
A. Standing crop
B. Climax
C. Climax community
D. Standing state
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q99Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q100Biology
Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere?
A. Telophase II
B. Metaphase I
C. Metaphase II
D. Anaphase II
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q101Biology
A. Phosphoglyceric acid
B. Pyruvic acid
C. Oxaloacetic acid
D. Succinic acid
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q102Biology
Which of the following statements is not correct?
A. Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is upright
B. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
C. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
D. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q103Biology
Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reverse food material?
A. Ulothrix
B. Ectocarpus
C. Gracilaria
D. Volvox
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q104Biology
When gene targetting involving gene amplification is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it is known as :
A. Safety testing
B. Biopiracy
C. Gene therapy
D. Molecular diagnosis
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q105Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q106Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q107Biology
A. (a) - Transduction; (b) - Translation; (c) - Replication; (d) - Protein
B. (a) - Replication; (b) - Transcription; (c) - Transduction; (d) - Protein
C. (a) - Translation; (b) - Replication; (c) - Transcription; (d) - Transduction
D. (a) - Replication; (b) - Transcription; (c) - Translation; (d) - Protein
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q108Biology
In the equation GPP - R = NPP
R represents :
A. Respiration losses
B. Radiant energy
C. Retardation factor
D. Environmental factor
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q109Biology
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as :
A. Acrocentric
B. Metacentric
C. Telocentric
D. Sub-metacentric
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q110Biology
The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
A. IBA
B. IAA
C. NAA
D. 2, 4-D
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q111Biology
Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants?
A. Rubber, gums
B. Morphine, codeine
C. Amino acids, glucose
D. Vinblastin, curcumin
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q112Biology
Amensalism can be represented as :
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q113Biology
Which of the following is not an application of PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
A. Detection of gene mutation
B. Molecular diagnosis
C. Gene amplification
D. Purification of isolated protein
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q114Biology
Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
A. Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
B. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
C. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
D. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q115Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q116Biology
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
B. Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy
C. Fusion of protoplasm between two motile on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
D. Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q117Biology
A. The base of geometric logarithms
B. The base of number logarithms
C. The base of exponential logarithms
D. The base of natural logarithms
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q118Biology
In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain their viability for months after release?
A. Rosaceae : Leguminosae
B. Poaceae : Rosaceae
C. Poaceae : Leguminosae
D. Poaceae : Solanaceae
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q119Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q120Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q121Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q122Biology
What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
A. Transcribes only snRNAs
B. Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
C. Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
D. Transcribes precursor of mRNA
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q123Biology
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I and PS II
C. Stoma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP reductase
D. Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q124Biology
Now-a-days it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because:
A. mutated gene does not appear on photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it
B. mutated gene partially appears on a photographic film
C. mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film
D. mutated gene does not appear on a photographic film as the probe has no complementarity with it
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q125Biology
DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
A. Polymorphic DNA
B. Satellite DNA
C. Repetitive DNA
D. Single nucleotides
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q126Biology
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton gradient in respiration
B. During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is limited to the terminal stage.
D. ATP is synthesized through complex V
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q127Biology
A. It will be able to produce a novel protein with dual ability
B. It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance to the host cell
D. It will lead to lysis of host cell
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q128Biology
Identify the correct statement.
A. Split gene arrangement is characteristic of prokaryotes
B. In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 3' end of hnRNA
C. RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to terminate the process of transcription in bacteria
D. The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied to an mRNA
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q129Biology
Select the correct pair.
A. Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens shaped opening in bark - Spongy parenchyma
B. Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves - Subsidiary cells
C. In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick-walled cells - Conjunctive tissue
D. Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial ring - Interfascicular cambium
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q130Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q131Biology
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on :
A. Zona pellucida
B. Corona radiata
C. Vitelline membrane
D. Perivitelline space
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q132Biology
A. 32
B. 8
C. 16
D. 4
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q133Biology
Select the favourable conditions required for the formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q134Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q135Biology
Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
A. Pachytene
B. Leptotene
C. Zygotene
D. Diakinesis
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q136Biology
If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine in it?
A. T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25
B. T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
C. T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30
D. T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q137Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q138Biology
Read the following statements
(1) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(2) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(3) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(4) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(5) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A. (2), (3) and (5) are correct
B. (3), (4) and (5) are correct
C. Round (1), (2) and (3) are correct
D. (1), (4) and (5) are correct
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q139Biology
In a cross between a male and female, both heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 25%
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q140Biology
Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?
A. These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
B. These muscle have no striations
C. They are involuntary muscles
D. Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q141Biology
Which one of the following belongs to the family Muscidae?
A. House fly
B. Fire fly
C. Grasshopper
D. Cockroach
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q142Biology
During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained in the beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR will be affected first?
A. Ligation
B. Annealing
C. Extension
D. Denaturation
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q143Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q144Biology
Which one of the following is an example of Hormone releasing IUD?
A. Multiload 375
B. CuT
C. LNG 20
D. Cu 7
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q145Biology
The centriole undergoes duplication during :
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q146Biology
Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?
B. A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut
C. Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q147Biology
Veneral diseases can spread through :
(1) Using sterile needles
(2) Transfusion of blood from infected person
(3) Infector mother to foetus
(4) Kissing
(5) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the option given below.
A. (1) and (3) only
B. (1), (2), and (3) only
C. (2), (3) and (4) only
D. (2) and (3) only
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q148Biology
Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?
A. Ornithorhynchus
B. Neophron
C. Hemidactylus
D. Macropus
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q149Biology
Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as "Universal recipients". This is due to :
A. Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in plasma
B. Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of RBCs
C. Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
D. Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on RBCs
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q150Biology
The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are
A. Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
B. Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
C. Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and Vacuoles
D. Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and Lysosomes
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q151Biology
A specific recognition sequence identified by endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions within the DNA is :
A. Poly (A) tail sequences
B. Degenerate primer sequence
C. Okazaki sequences
D. Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q152Biology
Identify the incorrect pair
A. Drugs - Ricin
B. Alkaloids - Codeine
C. Toxin - Abrin
D. Lectins - Concanavalin A
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q153Biology
With regard to insulin choose correct options.
(1) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(2) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(3) The pro-insulin has C-peptide
(4) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A. (1) and (4) only
B. (2) and (4) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1), (3) and (4) only
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q154Biology
Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :
A. Gout
B. Arthritis
C. Muscular dystrophy
D. Myasthenia gravis
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q155Biology
Which of the following RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein?
A. siRNA
B. mRNA
C. tRNA
D. rRNA
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q156Biology
Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C formation is produced by :
A. Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
B. Alpha cells of pancreas
C. The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
D. The cells of bone marrow
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q157Biology
Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
A. Thrombokinase
B. Thrombin
C. Renin
D. Epinephrine
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q158Biology
For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?
A. Hybridization Technique
B. Western Blotting Technique
C. Southern Blotting Technique
D. ELISA Technique
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q159Biology
Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?
A. DNase
B. DNA dependent DNA polymerase
C. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
D. DNA Ligase
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q160Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q161Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q162Biology
Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'.
(1) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids
(2) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(3) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol
(4) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
(5) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A. (2) and (5) only
B. (1) and (2) only
C. (3) and (4) only
D. (2) and (3) only
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q163Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: D
Answer D follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q164Biology
During muscular contraction which of the following events occur?
(1) 'H' zone disappears
(2) 'A' band widens
(3) 'I' band reduces in width
(4) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and Pi.
(5) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A. (2), (4), (5), (1) only
B. (1), (3), (4), (5) only
C. (1), (2), (3), (4) only
D. (2), (3), (4), (5) only
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q165Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q166Biology
Assertion (A) : A person goes to high altitude and experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.
Reason (R) : Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
A. (A) is false but (R) is true
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
C. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
D. (A) is true but (R) is false
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q167Biology
Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?
A. Release of Prolactin
B. Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
C. Synthesis of prostaglandins
D. Release of Oxytocin
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q168Biology
Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy?
A. Uterus
B. Graafian follicle
C. Corpus luteum
D. Foetus
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q169Biology
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q170Biology
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into
A. Addison's disease
B. Dysfunction of immune system
C. Parkinson's disease
D. Digestive disorder
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q171Biology
Which one of the following statements about histones is wrong?
A. Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
B. Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 molecules
C. The pH of histones is slightly acidic
D. Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and Arginine
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q172Biology
Statement I : The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine and phenylalanine.
Statement II : 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for the amino acid lysine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
D. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: A
Answer A follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q173Biology
Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
A. Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
B. Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively
C. Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
D. Adhering junctions and Tight junctions respectively
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: C
Answer C follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.
Q174Biology
Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm.
(1) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(2) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl.
(3) It is one of the sensory structures.
(4) It is the first body segment.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A. (2) and (3) are correct
B. (1), (2) and (3) are correct
C. (1), (2) and (4) are correct
D. (1), (2), (3) and (4) are correct
View answer and available explanation
Correct Option: B
Answer B follows the ExamSIDE indexed key. See the credited source; not independently verified against an official final key.



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