NVS TGT PGT Result 2020, Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS) Result @ navodaya.gov.in

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NVS TGT PGT Result 2020, Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS)

Short Details of Notification

Important Dates

  • Application Begin : 10/07/2019
  • Last Date for Apply Online : 25/08/2019
  • Fee Payment Last Date : 26/08/2019
  • Exam Date : 16-20 September 2019
  • Admit Card Available : 06/09/2019
  • Answer Key Available : 25/09/2019
  • PGT Interview Admit Card Available : 02/12/2019
  • PGT Result Available : 05/02/2020

Application Fee

  • Assistant Commissioner : 1500/-
  • TGT / PGT / Staff Nurse : 1200/-
  • Other Post : 1000/-
  • SC/ST : 0/- (Exempted)
  • Pay the Exam Fee Through Debit Card / Credit Card / Net Banking Only.

Vacancy Details Total : 2370 Post

Post Name

Gen

EWS

OBC

SC

ST

Total

Age

Eligibility

Assistant Commissioner

02

01

01

01

0

05

Max 45 Years

Master Degree in Humanities / Science / Commerce with 5 Year Experience.

PGT Biology

21

02

11

06

03

43

Max 40 Years

Master Degree in Related Subject with Minimum 50% Marks. B.Ed Exam Passed

PGT Chemistry

22

02

12

06

03

45

PGT Commerce

09

0

04

02

01

16

PGT Economics

30

03

17

09

04

63

PGT English

19

02

09

05

02

37

PGT Geography

19

02

10

05

02

38

PGT Hindi

18

01

09

05

02

35

PGT History

23

02

12

06

03

46

PGT Math

24

02

12

07

03

48

PGT Physics

20

02

10

05

02

39

PGT Computer Science

10

01

05

03

01

20

TGT English

129

14

75

41

20

279

Max 35 Years

Bachelor Degree in Related Subject / Group with Minimum 50% Marks. B.Ed Exam & CTET Exam Passed

TGT Hindi

146

16

86

48

24

320

TGT Math

117

13

69

38

19

256

TGT SCience

65

07

37

20

10

139

TGT Social Science

73

08

43

24

12

160

Music Teacher

53

05

29

16

08

111

Max 35 Years

Bachelor in Music with B.Ed OR Five Year Music Course For More Details Read the Notification

Art Teacher

61

06

35

19

09

130

Max 35 Years

Degree / Diploma in Fine Arts as Drawing/Painting/Sculpture/GraphicArts/Crafts More Details Read the Notification

PET Male Teacher

69

07

39

22

11

148

Max 35 Years

B.PEd / DPEd Exam Passed in Any Recognized University in India.

PET Female Teacher

50

05

28

15

07

105

Librarian

34

03

18

10

05

70

Max 35 Years

Degree in Librarian Science

Staff Nurse Female

27

02

14

08

04

55

Max 35 Years

10+2 Intermediate with Degree / Diploma / Certificate in Staff Nurse.

Legal Assistant

0

0

01

0

0

01

18-32

Degree in Law (LLB Degree) in Any Recgonized University in India.

Catering Assistant

14

01

07

03

01

26

Max 35

Class 10 High School Exam Passed with Diploma in Catering.

LDC (Clerk)

63

06

36

20

10

135

18-27

10+2 Intermediate Exam with 50% Marks and English 30 WPM OR Hindi 25 WPM Typing Speed

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NVS TGT PGT Previous Year Question Paper  (2019)

PART — I (B)

GENERAL ENGLISH

Directions for Q. Nos. 21 to 25: Read the passage given below and complete the statements that follow with the help of given options:

Today diesel engines can be seen in use all over the world. In size they range all the way from small, single cylinder versions of 3 kW driving water pumps to mammoth multi-cylinder marine engines. Buses, Lorries, locomotives, tractors, bulldozers, mobile cranes and ships are powered by diesel engines. Stationary uses of the engine include generating sets, pump sets, etc. For a rugged, powerful and mobile source of energy the diesel engine is preferred. It is heavier than a corresponding petrol engine but far lower in fuel consumption. Heavy transportation and road construction could not have been possible in the absence of diesel engines.

Even in the case of passenger vehicles where petrol engines reign supreme so far due to lighter weight and smoother running, diesel engines are making gradual inroads. We may see more of diesel-powered cars in future due to the superior fuel economy of this engine. It is far less polluting than the petrol engine since it uses much more air than is necessary for combustion and hence, the combustion is more complete.

All this we owe to Dr. Rudolf Diesel, who could not enjoy the fruits of his labour. This genius in engineering was unbelievably inept in financial management and lost much of what he earned. He was deeply disturbed at the rapid worsening of relations between the French and the Germans. The portents of the coming holocaust, the First World War, were too evident to be ignored. On 29 September, 1913, Dr. Diesel took the ferry to Britain on a business trip and disappeared during the voyage; presumably he got drowned in the sea.

21. Study the following statements:

A. Diesel engines consume more fuel.

B. Diesel engines are heavier than petrol engines.

(1) `A’ is true and ‘EC is false.

(2) `B’ is true and ‘A’ is false.

(3) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are false.

(4) Both ‘A’ and ’13’ are true.

22. Is an example of stationary use of an engine?

(1) A crane

(2) A pump set

(3) A ship

(4) A tractor

23. Diesel engines are preferred because they are

(1) For lower in fuel consumption.

(2) Easily available.

(3) Much more durable than petrol engines.

(4) Cheaply maintainable.

24. Dr. Diesel suffered huge financial setbacks owing to

(1) His financial incompliance.

(2) His failing health.

(3) The First World War.

(4) The worsening relations between France and Germany.

25. The word ‘portents’ as used in the last paragraph means

(1) Prospects

(2) Possibilities

(3) Signs

(4) Chances

Directions for Q. Nos. 26 to 31: Complete each of the sentences given below with the help of the options that follow:

26. We  should  live in a style suited our condition.

(1) for

(2) to

(3) with

(4) towards

27. When I visited him in the hospital, he was writhing pain.

(1) from

(2) with

(3) in

(4) on

28. The rebels for more than two months.

(1) held out

(2) held up

(3) held in

(4) held over

29. These chairs are the physically challenged.

(1) set down for

(2) set up for

(3) set in for

(4) set apart for

30. He _______ many difficulties since his arrival in the city.

(1) faced

(2) has faced

(3) is facing

(4) was saving

31. He suddenly remembered the place where the party

(1) has been held

(2) was held

(3) had been held

(4) might have been held

Directions for Q. Nos. 32 & 33: Which part of speech is the underlined word in each of the following sentences?

32. I was not a mischievous or troublesome child.

(1) Preposition

(2) Adverb

(3) Conjunction

(4) Pronoun

33. We all slept upstairs.

(1) Adverb

(2) Noun

(3) Conjunction

(4) Preposition

Directions for Q. Nos. 34 & 35: Each of the following sentences has an error in it. Identify the part which has the error.

34. I believe / he is capable to handle / such a / difficult situation

(1)                         (2)                                    (3)                        (4)

35. You don’t have to look/ very far/ to find the cause for/ these problems

(1)                                          (2)                           (3)                              (4)

Directions for Q. Nos. 36 to 40: Read the passage given below and answer the questions / complete the statements with the help ot the options that follow:

In  the  twenty-three  years  since Aurangzeb had marched north to seize the throne, the area of the Deccan had been dominated by a small Maratha chieftain, Shivaji, whose guerilla tactics were to prove fatal to the Moghuls and who thereby became a very special hero to Hindus in the political climate of the early twentieth century. With the independence movement under way to eject the British and to restore India to the Indians after nine centuries of domination by rulers whose roots were outside the subcontinent, there was a magnetic appenl about a Hindu who, from compaiatively humble beginnings, had risen to shake the very foundations of the Moghul Empire. In the words of Sir Jadunath Sarkar, tbe leading Hindu biographer of Aurangzeb, writing in about 1915, Shivadi ‘proved by his example that the Hindu race can build a nation, found a State, dereat enemies: they can conduct their own defence: they can proteet and promote literature and art, commerce and industry;
they can maintain navies and ocean-trading nleets of their own. and conduct naval battles on equal terms with foreigners. He taught the modern Hindus to rise to the full stature of their growth’. So, when viewed with hindsight throuph twentieth-Century glasses. Aurnngzeb on one side and shivaji on the other come to be seen as key figures in the development of India. What shivaji began. Gandhiji could complete – the addition of ji is in both cases a mark of respect. and Indians todwy speak in conversation of Gandhiji rather than Gandhi — and what Aurangzeb stood for would lead to the establishment of the separate state of Pakistan.

36. Which of the fpllowiag statements is false?

(1) shivaji had comparatively humble beginnings.

(2) shivaji shook the foundations of the Moghul empire.

(3) He was a big Maratha chieftain.

(4) ShivaJi’s guerilla tactips proved fatal to the Moghuls.

37. According to sir Jadunath sarikar, Shivaji

(1) put Bijapur on the road to prosperity.

(2) proved that Indians were capable of managing all of their affairs.

(3) stressed the need for national unity.

(4) was determined to free India from the yoke of the Moghul empire.

38. The expression ‘what shivaji began, Gandhiji could complete’ refers to

(1) atmocities committed by the Moghuls and the British.

(2) India’s longing for a just and equitable society.

(3) India’s stmuggle against foreign domination culminating in freedom.

(4) sacrificeS made by the Indian people.

39. Study the following statements:

A. Shivaji’s guerrilla tactic proved fatal to the Moghuls.

B. shivaji’s guerilla taetics raised him to the stature ot a hero.

(1) ‘A’ is tmue and ‘B’ is false.

(2) ‘B’ is true and ‘A’ is false.

(3) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are true.

(4) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are false.

40. The word ‘magnetic’ as used in the passage means the Same as

(1) Wonderful

(2) Captivating

(3) Enormous

(4) Charismatic

Part – II

General Awareness

41. Which Indian Gymnast missed bronze medal in Rio Olympics by very little margin but was praised for the high risk Produnova vault?

(1) Sakshi Malik

(2) Dipa Karmakar

(3) P.V. Sindhu

(4) Simone Biles

42. Which of the following is correct?

(1) Block printing nainly originated fron Tamil Nadu.

(2) Biuaner is famous for Phulkari

(3) Kerala is renowned for its painting on ivory.

(4) Piply, famous for applique work, is in Andhra Pradesh.

43. Maritime trade in Harappan Era is evident in which of the sites?

(1) Mohenjodaro

(2) Lothal

(3) Atamira

(4) Dholavira

44. Which sports would associate the given words?

Diamond, Pullout, Base, Pitching

(1) Chess

(2) Basketball

(3) Bridge

(4) Baseball

45. How many Gold medals did India win in 2014 Asian Games?

(1) 13

(2) 11

(3) 12

(4) 14

46. When you mix hot water in cold water, the whole water becomes hot in few minutes. which of following statements is not true with reference to convection?

(1) Heaters and blowers should be placed near ground level so that they set up convention current.

(2) Handles of cooking material are made of plastics and wood to avoid heating due to convection.

(3) Ventilators in home are made near the ceiling of a room

(4) Sea breeze occurs due to convention current.

47. The acids which are found in plants and animals are called

(1) Inorganic acids

(2) Organic acids

(3) Mineral acids

(4) Neutralised acids

48. Which of the following statements is true?

(1) Bases are sweet to taste.

(2) Vinegar is natural source of lactic acid.

(3) Litmus is the most common indicator used in the laboratory.

(4) In an acidic medium the turmeric paper turns reddish brown.

49. In human beings kidneys are located at the level of the waist on either side of the vertebral column. Each kidney contains a large number of coiled tubes called

(1) neurons

(2) ureters

(3) nephrons

(4) intestine

50. Which of the following gases is not considered as polluting agent of air?

(1) SO2

(2) CO2

(3) CO

(4) NO2

51. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?

(1) Cotton

(2) Groundnut

(3) Mustard

(4) Maize

52. Which of the following is correct?

(1) National Highway 7 connects Mumbai with Varanasi.

(2) National Highway 7 connects Delhi with Kanyakumari.

(3) National Highway 12 connects Delhi and Mumbai.

(4) National Highway 6 connects Delhi and Varanasi.

53. When did Reserve Bank of India come into existence?

(1) 1st April, 1935

(2) 1st April, 1939

(3) 26th November, 1949

(4) 1st July, 1950

54. What was the duration (time period) of 11th Five Year Plan in India?

(1) 2007-2012

(2) 2012-2017

(3) 2002-2007

(4) 2011-2016

55. Who worked as a constitutional advisor for Constitutional Assembly?

(1) B.R. Ambedkar

(2) Rajendra Prasad

(3) B.N. Rao

(4) Sachchidanand sinha

56. Which committee recommended the inclusion of fundamental duties in the Indian Constitution?

(1) Swarna Singh Committee

(2) Ashok Mehta Committee

(3) Balram Jakhad Committee

(4) Mandal Committee

57. Which one of the following statement is correct with reference to India?

(1) State legislative assemblies elect the member of upper house or the Parliamnent of India.

(2) Person contesting ror vice-President must be member of upper house of Parliament.

(3) A person contesting for Lok Sabha can be resident of any State of India but for Rajya Sabha helshe should be resident of the same state.

(4) The constitution does not allow the nominated members in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

58. The representation of the Union Territories can be

(1) in upper house of the Parliament of India.

(2) in lower house of the Parliament of India.

(3) Both the houses of the Parliament of India.

(4) None of the houses of the Parliament of India.

59. ________ recommends Bharat Ratna Award to ______.

(1) Prime-Minister, President

(2) President, Prime Minister

(3) Chief Justice, President

(4) President, Chief Justice

60. Which one of the following country has received most of the Nobel Prizes in the field of Economics?

(1) India

(2) Russia

(3) U.S.A.

(4) U.K.

61. Who established the ‘Depressed Class Association’?

(1) Jyoti Rao Phule

(2) Periyar

(3) Mahatma Gandhi

(4) B .R. Ambedkar

62. “This is a large and beautiful city. It is surrounded by a massive wall. It has 570 towers and 64 gates. The houses of two and three storeys, are built of wood and mud brick. The king’s palace is also of wood and decorated with stone carvings. It is surrounding the gardens and enclosures for keeping birds.” Above description belongs to

(1) Taxila

(2) Koshal

(3) Pataliputra

(4) Ujiaini

63. ‘Khud-Icashta’ and ‘Pahi-Kashpa’ refer to kinds of — in the seventeenth century.

(1) Soldiers

(2) Artisans

(3) Administrators

(4) Peasants

64. Which of the following texts provide information about the use of Persian wheel in India duriag the 15th-16th century?

(i) Baburnama

(ii) Humayunnama

(iii) Ain-i-Akbari

(iv) Tuzk-i-Jahangiri

Use the code to answer

(1) (i)

(2) (i) and (ii)

(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

65. Consider the following statements and select the correct option:

(i) Amendment in the Indian constitution can only be initiated in Lok Sabha.

(ii) If amendment changes the federal nature of the Constitution, this needs ratification from all the Indian states.

Select the correct option given below:

(1) Only (i) is correct.

(2) Only (ii) is incorrect.

(3) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect.

(4) Both (i) and (ii) are correct.

66. Which one or the following Indian State is the highest producer of coffee?

(1) Assam

(2) Odisha

(3) Karnataka

(4) Madhya Pradesh

67. Who is the author of the book ‘A Theory of Economic History’?

(1) John Hicks

(2) E.F. Schumacher

(3) Adam Smith

(4) Karl Marx

68. Which Constitution Amendment Act incorporates replacement or all indirect taxes paid by customers?

(1) Gross Supply Tax Act

(2) Goods Supply Tax Act

(3) Goods and Services Tax Act

(4) Gross and Services Tax Act

69. Which country topped a worldwide Human Capital Index, that measured 130 countries, ability to nurture, develop and deploy talent for economic growth? It was recently released by Geneva based world Economic Forum.

(1) Norway

(2) Finland

(3) Denmark

(4) China

70. Telecom Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad on May 7, 2o16, approved the provision of a single number for various emergency services that would be similar to the ‘911’, all in one emergency services in the U.S.A. The single emergency number proposed is

(1) 111

(2) 112

(3) 113

(4) 114

Part – III

General Intelligence, Numerical Ability and Reasoning

71. How many 4’s are there in the following number series, which are preceded by 2 but not followed by 1?

4 1 3 2 4 3 5 6 7 4 2 1 6 2 4 5 3 1 2 4 3 6 4 1 2 4 7 2 2

(1) one

(2) two

(3) three

(4) four

72. How many 3’s are there in the following number series, which are preceded by an odd number but not followed by an even number?

3 4 2 5 3 1 5 2 1 3 6 7 3 1 8 2 7 8 5 3 9 1 3 4 5

(1) one

(2) two

(3) three

(4) four

73. If DRAMA is coded as 37 and STAGE as 52, how will you code DELHI?

(1) 36

(2) 37

(3) 38

(4) 39

74. If ‘COLD’ is coded as ‘DPME’, select appropriate code for ‘GIVEN’.

(1) HJWJM

(2) HKwJM

(3) HJWJO

(4) HJWFO

75. Determine the pattern and find the correct answer:

11, 30, 68, 144, ? ,600

(1) 508

(2) 604

(3) 799

(4) 296

76. Determine the pattern and find the correct answer:

5, 8, 12, 17, 23, ? ,38

(1) 26

(2) 28

(3) 29

(4) 30

77. As ‘wheel’ is related to ‘vehicle’, similarly ‘Clock’ is related to

(1) Pir

(2) Stick

(3) Nail

(4) Needle

78. Select the pair of words which is related in the same way as the words of the first pair.

Bush : Flora

(1) Fish : Water

(2) Horse : carriage

(3) Plant: Fauna

(4) Blue : Colour

79. If the vowels of the word ‘SOLITARY’ are first arranged in alphabetical order, rollowed by the consonants in the alphabetic order, which of the following will be the 5th from the right end after the rearrangement?

(1) L

(2) R

(3) S

(4) T

80. Find the number of letters between 21st letter from right and 10th letter from right in the English alphabet.

(1) 7

(2) 8

(3) 9

(4) 10

81. Consider the given statement and two assumptions numbered I and II.

Statement: The root cause of all social evils is love for wealth.

Assumptions I: wealth gives power and makes selfish.

II: All those who love wealth are anti-social.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement?

(1) Only I is implicit.

(2) Only II is implicit.

(a) Both I and II are implicit.

(4) Both I and II are not implicit.

82. Consider the given statement and two assumptions numbered I and II:

Statement: The target or a fiscal deficit of 8% of GDP could not be met because of major short fall in revenue collection.

Assumptions I: Shortfall in revenue collection leads to an increase in fiscal deficit.

II: Shortfall in revenue collection leads to a decrease in fiscal deficit.

Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the statement?

(1) Only I is implicit.

(2) Only II is implicit.

(3) Both I and II are implicit.

(4) Both I and II are not implicit.

83. Cost of petroleum products has been increased almost 15% in last two months. which of the following may be the possible cause of the effect mentioned above?

(1) The cost to vegetable has been increased by more than 25%.

(2) Union or truck owners has decided to increase carriage about 30% with immediate effect.

(3) In last couple or weeks, the cost of crude oil in the international market has been increased.

(4) People have decided to protest against the inertia of government towards essential commodities.

84. Given the following two statements?

I: The government has decided to make all the information related to primary education available to the general public.

II: In the past, the general public did not have access to all these information related to primary education.

Which of the following is correct?

(1) Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect.

(2) Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect.

(3) Both the Statements I and II are independent causes.

(4) Both the Statements I and II are the effects of independent causes.

85. Which figure completes the statement?

86. Which figure completes the statement?

87. A fruit seller sells half of his fruits plus half an orange, again he sells half of what remains plus half an orange, and so again a third time. His store is now exhausted, how many did he start from?

(1) 5

(2) 7

(3) 9

(4) 11

88. A man wish to give 12 to each person and found that he fell short of 6 when he wanted to gave to all the persons present. He therefore distributed 9 to each person and found that 9 was left over. How many persons were there?

(1) 7

(2) 6

(3) 5

(4) 4

89. 90% and 97% pure acid solutions are mixed to obtain 21 litres of 95% pure acid solution. Find the amount of each type of acid to be mixed to form the mixture.

(1) 6 litre, 15 litre

(2) 8 litre, 20 litre

(3) 10 litre, 14 litre

(4) 12 litre, 20 litre

90. After 5 years a man’s age will be three times his son’s age and 5 years ago he was 7 times as old as his son. The age of son is

(1) 12 years

(2) 15 years

(3) 14 years

(4) 10 years

91. X and Y have certain number of oranges. X says to Y, “if you give me 10 of your oranges, I will have twice the number of oranges left with you”. y replies, “If you give me 10 of your oranges, I will have the same number of oranges as left with you”. The number of oranges with y is

(1) 70

(2) 50

(3) 40

(4) 20

92. In a two digit number, the unit’s digit is twice the ten’s digit. If 27 is added to the number, the digits interchange their places. The number is

(1) 48

(2) 36

(3) 24

(4) 12

93. A boat Cover 32 km upstream and 36 km downstream in 7 hours. Also, it covers 40 km upstream and 48 km downstream in 9 hours. The ratio of speed of boat in still water and speed of the stream is

(1) 1 : 5

(2) 1 : 2

(3) 2 : 1

(4) 5 : 1

94. Point X and Y are 90 km apart from each other on a highway. A car starts from X and another from Y at the same time. If they go in the same direction they meet in 9 hours and if they go in opposite directions they meet in 9/7 hours. The maximum speed of the car among the two cars is

(1) 20km/hr

(2) 30km/hr

(3) 40km/hr

(4) 50km/hr

95. On selling a tea-set at 5% loss and a lemon set at gain of 15%, a crockery seller gains Rs. 7. If he sells the tea-set at 5% gain and the lemon set at 10% gain, he gains Rs. 13. The actual price of the lemon set is

(1) Rs. 100

(2) Rs. 80

(3) Rs. 120

(4) Rs. 115

96. How many terms of the given sequence:

1, 4, 7,……….. are needed to give the sum 715?

(1) 20

(2) 21

(3) 22

(4) 23

97. If first half or the following series is written in the reverse order, then which will be the 7th letter to the left of 10th letter from your right?

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

98. If the position to Manoj is 25th from one end and 23rd from the other end in his class, what is the total number of students in his class?

(1) 45

(2) 46

(3) 47

(4) 48

99. Which one or the given options would be a meaningful order of the following memory capacity of a hard disk in ascending order of memory size?

A. Mega bytes

B. Kilo bytes

D. Peta bytes

D. Zeta bytes

(1) A B C D

(2) B A C D

(3) A B D C

(4) B A D C

100. Which one of the following options would be a correct meaningful sequence of the following words?

A. Child

B. Marriage

C. Education

D. Job

(1) A B C D

(2) A D C B

(3) A C D B

(4) A D B C

Part – IV

Teaching Aptitude

101. ‘We must at present do our best to form a class of persons, Indian in blood and colour, but English in taste, in opinions, in morals and in intellect.’ Which of the following voiced the above statement?

(1) Lord Maeaulay

(2) Lord william Bentinck

(3) Sir Charles Wood

(4) Lord Harding

102. Operation Blackboard (OB) was introduced to improve tbe quality of primary education. which or the following are essential elements of the scheme?

(a) At least one teacher in every school.

(b) Provision or essential teaching and learning materials.

(c) Separate toilets for girls and boys.

(d) Provision of a building with at least two reasonable large rooms.

(1) (a) & (b)

(2) (a), (b) & (d)

(3) (b), (c) & (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) & (d)

103. Where CR = Conditioned Response,

UR = Unconditioned Response,

CS = Conditioned Stimulus and

US = Unconditioned Stimulus

Select the incorrect statement with respect to classical conditioning.

(1) The magnitude of CR is always less than that of IJR.

(2) CR and UR are always the same kind of response.

(3) CS and US, nature wise, vary.

(4) US should precede CS.

104. With respect to Educational Psychology, which one of the following completely describes punishment?

(1) Introduction of positive as well as negative reinforcer.

(2) Introduction of positive reinforcer and withdrawal of negative reinforcer.

(3) Withdrawal of positiver reinforcer and introduction of negative reinforcer.

(4) Withdrawal of positive as well as negative reinforcer.

105. According to Piaget, at which stage of cognitive development, a student is able to recognize that subtraction is reverse of addition?

(1) Sensorimotor stage

(2) Preoperational stage

(3) Concrete operations stage

(4) Formal operations stage

106. The most practical way to help students elaborate and organize new knowledge is to

(1) Teach them how to take notes

(2) Ask descriptive questions

(3) Give homework on a regular basis

(4) Use problem based learning

107. Mrs. Bhagat notices in her class that one of her students Chetan is restless. in his seat and seems to get easily distracted. He has difficulty recognizing words and letters and reads slowly with little fluency. He has limited vocabulary and has difficulty copying words from the blackboard. Chetan may be showing signs of

(1) Learning impairment

(2) Language disorder

(3) Learning disability

(4) Behavioural disorder

108. When a teacher compliments two students for attractive illustrations in their arithmetic notebook, other students turn in illustrated arithmetic notebooks. This is an example of

(1) Direct reinforcement

(2) Self reinforcement

(3) Vicarious reinforcement

(4) Reciprocal casualty

109. While young children may learn addition and subtraction of two digit numbers at school. they find it difficult to calculate how much change they should get back when they buy an ice-cream or a chocolate. This is probably because

(1) Declarative knowledge is not task related.

(2) Procedural knowledge is often learned with considerable practice.

(3) Conceptual knowledge is too abstract to transfer.

(4) Declarative knowledge is explicit knowledge.

110. Lalit is able to find a solution to his academic problems with the support of his classmate Dinesh. Which of the following notions describe his position?

(1) Zone of proximal development

(2) Stage of formal operations

(3) Problem based learning

(4) Co-operative learning

111. ‘Perceived existence of some sort of historical or contemporary social and economic disadvantage’ is the basis of

(1) Inclusion in education

(2) Reservation in education

(3) Differentiated instruction

(4) Collaborative learning

112. Lalita plans to be a teacher. She has been told by her friends and family that she interacts well with children. Lalita’s mother is a teacher and she has never questioned Lalita’S expectation that she becomes a teacher. Lalita’s identity state is one of

(1) Foreclosure

(2) Morotoriunn

(3) Diffusion

(4) Achievement

113. An effective teacher must communicate to students that s/he is aware of everything that is happening in the classroom that she/he is not missing anything. This technique of preventing problems in the class is

(1) Withitness

(2) Overlapping

(3) Group focussing

(4) Movement management

114. Which of the following practice do you consider least important to reduce achievement differences among students?

(1) Not giving students autonomy to choose their own activities during class.

(2) Having high expectations from all students and to reward them for their accomplishment.

(3) Interesting teaching incorporating a variety of learning aids.

(4) Promoting student engagement and involvement in school.

115. With respect to central tendencies mean, median and mode, which one of the following is incorrect?

(1) Mode is used when the means of central tendency is the most typical value.

(2) Median is used when the measure of central tendency having the greatest stability is wanted.

(3) Mean is used when other statistics are to be computed later.

(4) Mode is used when a quick and approximate measure of central tendency is wanted.

116. A class XII student in your class gets along well with his peers and has good communication skills. Which of the following vocation would be more suitable for him?

(1) Graphic Designer

(2) Architect

(3) Therapist

(4) Violinist

117. A school principal wants to judge the quality of teachers in his school. Which or the following steps he takes would be 1east useful in this process?

(1) Ask teachers to fill a self evaluation proforma.

(2) Meet teachers personally and ask them about their teaching practices.

(3) Analyze school results

(4) Observe interaction in each classroom.

118. “Discipline is necessary for self-realization. There should be no free discipline, external constraints or suppression of spontaneous activity. The teacher should guide the children in acquiring the spiritual values of the universe.” The above description of discipline belongs to which one of the following school of philosophical thought?

(1) Naturalism

(2) Pragmatism

(3) Idealism

(4) Humanism

119. with respect to the methods of teaching. which one of the following school of philosophical thought is of the opinion that : “A method of teaching must consist of looking away from first things, principles and of looking towards last things, fruits, consequences, facts. It is in submitting conceptions to the control of experiences in the process of verifying them that one finds examples of what is called truth. Truth means verification”.

(1) Realism

(2) Pragmatism

(3) Naturalism

(4) Idealism

120. Which one of the following does not pertain to philosophical views of Rabindranath Tagore?

(1) Humanism was the key-note of his philosophy.

(2) He advocated craft centered education.

(3) He believed in freedom of mind which can only be achieved through the path of freedom.

(4) He wanted to bring up pupils in inseparable association with nature.

(NVS)

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti (NVS) is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Resource Development, Government of India. NVS runs a system of alternate schools for talented and gifted students of India called as Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs).

These schools were established to find the talented children from rural areas of the country and to provide them quality education so that they can compete without facing any disadvantages. All the JNVs are co-educational and fully residential schools. These schools are affiliated to CBSE.

Every year NVS release application for admission of talented students from various districts of the states to class VI, IX and class XI. Admission to class VI and IX are made through a selection test called JNVST (Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Selection Test). Whereas admission to class XI are done through lateral entry based on merit in class X. A large number of children from different states apply every year for admission to these schools.

/Registration Form

  • NVS notify students about admission to the new session through publicity in Doordarshan, All India Radio, NVS website, local news papers, pamphlets, regional offices, local Navodaya Vidyalayas etc.
  • Application forms can be filled through the online mode.
  • Applicants must read all the admission guidelines and instructions carefully before filling the application form so that they can avoid various problems that arises during the application process.
  • All the applicants/parents are advised to keep all the necessary documents ready with them before filling the admission form.

?

Candidates/guardians can follow the given procedure to fill the application form. It is a general process to fill application for class VI, IX, & IX.

  1. Applicants firstly have to visit the official website of NVS
  2. On the homepage of the portal, they have to search for the relevant application link for the class they have to get admission in.
  3. On opening the application link, applicants are redirected to the registration page.
  4. Fill the required details such as email ID, mobile no. etc.
  5. After successful registration, applicants have to fill the application form. All the personal details, qualification details, and other information must be filled accurately in the form.
  6. Now they have to upload scanned copy of all the documents in the prescribed format.
  7. Once application form is filled applicants must review it.
  8. By clicking on the submit button application will be submitted.
  9. Lastly, candidates can take a print out of the application form for future references.

Application procedure for admission to Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya is completely free. No application fee is charged from any of the candidate.

All the candidates/ parents applying for NVS admissions are required to read the eligibility requirements before filling the application form. They must fill the application form only if they satisfy the eligibility requirements.

Eligibility criteria for admission to NVS in all the classes (i.e. VI, IX & XI) is as follows-

  • Candidates must be from the district where the JNV has been opened.

Class VI-

  • Candidate must be of age group 9 to 13 years (Applicable to all categories).
  • Students must have qualified class V from a recognized board.
  • Candidates should have not appeared in JNVST test earlier.

Every year NVS release application for admission to class VI, VIII and XI. Admission to NVS are mainly done on the basis of selection test and merit.

  • JNVST Selection test

Admission to class VI and class IX are made strictly on the basis of an entrance test class Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Selection Test (JNVST). All the candidates who wants to get admission to JNVs has to appear and qualify JNVST. After the completion of entrance test, conducting authority invite the selected candidates for document verification and finally, admission made to the respected school.

  • Class 11 Lateral Entry

No selection test is conducted for admission to class XI. Admission to class XI in JNVs is done through lateral entry. Candidates are selected on the basis of merit which is prepared on the basis of marks obtained by the candidates in class X.

JNVST Selection Test

Exam Pattern for Class VI

  • Mode of exam- Offline (OMR-based)
  • Total questions-  questions
  • Question type- objective type
  • Subjects – Mental ability, Arithmetic, Language
  • Medium of question paper- Any language out of 21 languages
  • Duration- 2 hours
  • Negative marks- No

Exam Pattern for Class IX

  • Mode of exam- Offline (OMR-based)
  • Question type- objective type/ Descriptive
  • Section- 4
  • Subjects – English, Hindi, Mathematics, Science
  • Medium of question paper- English/ Hindi
  • Duration- 3 hours
  • Total marks- 100
  • Negative marks- No
  • Syllabus- based on class VII

NVS Test Centre

Selection test is conducted at the various Navodaya Vidyalayas established across the country. Candidates are usually assigned the same Navodaya Vidyalaya of the district for which they have filed the application as the test center. No request for change of exam center is accepted under any circumstance.

All the selected candidates are required to report the allotted school for verification of all the certificates and documents on the specified dates.

Below is the list of all the documents that are required to be verified at the time of admission-

  • Address/residence proof
  • Age proof- Birth certificate for class VI & IX and for class XI, mark sheet of class X is considered as age proof.
  • Certificate of caste and category issued by the competent authority (in case of SC/ST candidates)
  • Relevant certificate if candidate apply for admission under Rural Category.
  • Physically disable certificate
  • Relevant certificate if candidate apply under transgender category.
  • Other documents (if applicable)

NVS Admission- Unique feature

  • Migration of students for national integration-

NVS has a unique feature under which it allows migration of NVS students from area to another.  Under this scheme, 30% of students from one Navodaya Vidyalaya of a linguistic region are migrated to another JNV of different linguistic region at class IX so that they understand the diversity and plurality of Indian culture.

Migration is usually done between Hindi speaking to Non-Hindi speaking regions. In case the selected students or their parents refuses to migrate to other state then they will not be allowed to continue their studies in JNVs.

  • Migration of students and Three language formula

This unique feature of migration of students in NVS is to promote national integration that basically follows a three language formula. The three languages include Hindi, English and Regional languages.

The third language in Hindi speaking regions is the language of migrated students and vice-versa. This language is compulsory for all.

Some important instructions regarding Navodaya Admission 2020

  • Marks obtained by candidates in the selection test are not communicated in NVS admission process.
  • There is no provision of re-evaluation of answer books.
  • Parents must be present at the allotted school with their wards for the verification of documents. Two final notices are sent to them through the registered post.
  • If the selected candidate does not report for certificate verification even after two reminders than regional office will release the wait list.
  • Admission process to class VI through the main list is usually completed by 30th June and to class XI by 15th July every year.

JNVST after the final release of answer key released the cut-off mark category wise list for the appeared candidates. It is the minimum marks student have to get in order to get eligible for the next round of admission. Also along with it, Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya released the criteria for the waiting list.

JNVST Merit list 2020

Merit list is the list of student who has cleared the Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Selection Test and is eligible to get admission in the selected respective Navodaya School. So if candidate sees their name in the JNVST merit list then they should proceed to the next round of securing their seat by reporting to the Jawahar Navodaya school and paying the fee for the academic session.

JNVST Exam preparation tips

Clearing JNVST exam is not easy as more than 30 lakh student appear for the exam and there are only a few seats available to fill in approximately 598 schools.

NVS Admission- A Brief detail

Admission Navodaya School Admissions
Article type NVS Admission information
Academic session 2020-21
Conducting body NVS
Admission level National level
School name Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya
Affiliation of the schools CBSE
Mode of application procedure Online
Selection Basis Written test and lateral entry
Classes VI, IX, XI
Area covered Pan India
Official Website www.navodaya.gov.in
JNVST HELP DESK NUMBER 0120-2975754

NVS TGT PGT Result 2020